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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

SelectAnswer
AThe body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
BGround reflections and scattering make the field strength vary with location
CAll these choices are correct
DE field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

2. - E1A09

What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
ANotify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
BNotify the nearest FCC Field Engineers office
CAll these choices are correct
DDiscontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it

3. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

SelectAnswer
AA signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
BAny transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
CAn amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
DAn emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

4. - E1C01

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

SelectAnswer
A170 Hz
B1.5 kHz
C2.8 kHz
D60 Hz

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

SelectAnswer
AThe output power of the balloon transmitter
BThe station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
CCall sign
DAll these choices are correct

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum passing score of 80%
BMinimum passing score of 77%
CMinimum passing score of 74%
DMinimum passing score of 70%

7. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide additional spectrum for personal use
BTo provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
CTo allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
DTo provide for experimental amateur communications

8. - E2A06

What are Keplerian elements?

SelectAnswer
AEncrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
BParameters that define the orbit of a satellite
CHigh-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
DPhase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
ALuminance
BSpectral intensity
CChroma
DHue

10. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ABecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
BTo separate the calling stations from the DX station
CTo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
DAll these choices are correct

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

SelectAnswer
APACTOR III
BMSK144
COlivia
DJT65

12. - E2E01

Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APulse modulation
BSpread spectrum
CFSK
DDTMF tones modulating an FM signal

13. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?

SelectAnswer
ASprites and jets
BGrayline
CWarm and cold fronts
DLightning discharges

14. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
APropagation between points at the same latitude
BPropagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point
CPropagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
DPropagation between points located on the magnetic equator

15. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AVertical
BElliptical
CCircular
DHorizontal

16. - E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

SelectAnswer
ANever use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
BAll these choices are correct
CKeep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
DNever use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
BModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
CModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
DModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter

18. - E4C13

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

SelectAnswer
AIt improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
BIt improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
CIt improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
DAll these choices are correct

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

SelectAnswer
AOdd-order products overload the IF filters
BOdd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
COdd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
DOdd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band

20. - E4E10

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

SelectAnswer
AA defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
BAll these choices are correct
CA malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
DArcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

21. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AR/L
BL/R
CMaximum
DMinimum

22. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 1
BPoint 3
CPoint 8
DPoint 7

24. - E5D01

What is the result of skin effect?

SelectAnswer
AThermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
BAs frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
CThermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
DAs frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThey are both low impedance
BThey are both high impedance
CAn FET has lower input impedance
DAn FET has higher input impedance

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AForward DC bias current
BA sub-harmonic pump signal
CCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
DReverse voltage larger than the RF signal

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
ADifferential output capability
BLower power consumption
CLower distortion
DImmune to damage from static discharge

28. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

SelectAnswer
AIncreased conductivity in the presence of light
BMechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
CGeneration of electrical energy in the presence of light
DMechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field

29. - E6E10

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

SelectAnswer
AShorter circuit-board traces
BComponents have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
CSmaller circuit area
DAll these choices are correct

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ACadmium Sulfide
BSilicon
CCopper oxide
DSelenium

31. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt only produces logic 0 at its output when all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output if all inputs are logic 1
CIt produces logic 1 at its output if any or all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 1 at its output if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B08

How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

SelectAnswer
ABy feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
BBy increasing the driving power
CBy reducing the driving power
DBy feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input

33. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

SelectAnswer
ATwo inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
BAn inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
CTwo capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
DA capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output

34. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
AIt provides negative feedback to improve regulation
BIt provides D1 with current
CIt controls the current supplied to the load
DIt provides a constant load for the voltage source

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

SelectAnswer
AAn FM generator circuit
BAn automatic band-switching circuit
CA circuit for detecting FM signals
DA circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

SelectAnswer
ARemoving unnecessary significant digits
BAttenuating the signal
CReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
DConverting data to binary code decimal form

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A0.23 volts
B2.3 volts
C-0.23 volts
D-2.3 volts

38. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a capacitive divider
BThrough a tapped coil
CThrough a neutralizing capacitor
DThrough link coupling

39. - E8A05

What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

SelectAnswer
AA grid dip meter
BA true-RMS calculating meter
CAn absorption wave meter
DA D'Arsonval meter

40. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

SelectAnswer
A1000
B3
C0.3
D3000

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
ASpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
BIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
CSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
DIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

42. - E8D09

What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

SelectAnswer
A-20 dB
B+15 dB
C-30 dB
D+10 dB

43. - E9A09

What is antenna efficiency?

SelectAnswer
ATotal resistance divided by radiation resistance
BRadiation resistance divided by total resistance
CRadiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
DEffective radiated power divided by transmitter output

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A75 degrees
B25 degrees
C30 degrees
D50 degrees

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA type of ground-plane antenna
BA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
CA dipole configured to provide forward gain
DA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

46. - E9D11

Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

SelectAnswer
AWide flat copper strap
BSolid wire
CStranded wire
DResistive wire, such as spark plug wire

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe gamma match
BThe stub match
CThe epsilon match
DThe delta match

48. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
BA capacitive reactance
CZero
DAn inductive reactance

49. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

SelectAnswer
AImpedance axis
BPolar axis
CReactance axis
DPrime axis

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
CAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
DThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

Figure E5-1

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3