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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

SelectAnswer
AThe extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
BThe high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
CMicrowaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
DMicrowaves are ionizing radiation

2. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

SelectAnswer
AAny amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
BOnly General Class or higher amateur licenses
CAn unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
DAny FCC-issued amateur license

3. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
BThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
CThe amateur station must cease operation
DThe amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

4. - E1C13

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter or 2200 meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AAn environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
BA special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
COperators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
DOperators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway

5. - E1D02

Which of the following may transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages?

SelectAnswer
AData containing personal information
BAuxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
CBinary control characters
DTelecommand signals from a space telecommand station

6. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

SelectAnswer
AAllow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
BWarn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
CImmediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
DImmediately terminate the candidate's examination

7. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
BIt must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
CIt must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
DIt must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power

8. - E2A12

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
ATo delay download of telemetry between satellites
BTo upload operational software for the transponder
CTo store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
DTo relay messages between satellites

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning two fields simultaneously
BBy scanning each field from bottom to top
CBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
DBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

SelectAnswer
AHF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
BThe 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
CCable TV channels 41 through 43
DFrequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

SelectAnswer
APACTOR III
BMSK144
COlivia
DJT65

12. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

SelectAnswer
A48 baud
B300 baud
C1200 baud
D110 baud

13. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

SelectAnswer
A1200 miles
B10 miles to 50 miles
C100 miles to 300 miles
D2500 miles

14. - E3B12

What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?

SelectAnswer
APropagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
BSuccessive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
CSignals reflected back toward the transmitting station
DPropagation across the geomagnetic equator

15. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
ADue to the Doppler effect
BD-region skip
CE-region skip
DDownward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

16. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

SelectAnswer
ALogic analyzer
BModulation monitor
CNetwork analyzer
DBit error rate tester

17. - E4B04

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

SelectAnswer
AS22
BS11
CS21
DS12

18. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe meter display sensitivity
BThe minimum discernible signal
CThe maximum detectable spectrum
DThe multiplex distortion stability

19. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
B146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
C146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
D173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

20. - E4E06

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by a nearby personal computer?

SelectAnswer
AThe appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
BA loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
CA whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
DA clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

21. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A23.5 kHz
B23.5 MHz
C7.12 kHz
D7.12 MHz

22. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
BVoltage leads current by 90 degrees
CVoltage and current are in phase
DCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AA negative magnitude
BA positive magnitude
CA negative phase angle
DA positive phase angle

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A0.577
B0.5
C0.866
D1.73

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AOnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
BExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
CHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
DOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

26. - E6B03

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

SelectAnswer
AZero bias
BReverse bias
CInductive bias
DForward bias

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

SelectAnswer
A2
B4
C6
D5

28. - E6D12

What is inductor saturation?

SelectAnswer
AThe inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
BAdjacent inductors become over-coupled
CThe inductor windings are over-coupled
DThe ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded

29. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

SelectAnswer
AA total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
BLow leakage doubly insulated package
CPackage mounts in a direct inverted position
DTwo chips in each package (Dual In Package)

30. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt stays the same
BIt decreases
CIt becomes unstable
DIt increases

31. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

SelectAnswer
APositive Logic
BReverse Logic
CNegative logic
DAssertive Logic

32. - E7B13

Which of the following describes an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AA two-transistor amplifier with the emitters sharing a common bias resistor
BAn amplifier with a low impedance output that follows the base input voltage
CAn OR circuit with only one emitter used for output
DA differential amplifier with both inputs fed to the emitter of the input transistor

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

SelectAnswer
APhase response
BShape factor
CPassband ripple
DNoise factor

34. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
AIt bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
BTo self-resonate at the hum frequency
CTo provide fixed DC bias for Q1
DIt is a brute force filter for the output

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
BTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
CTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
DTo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

36. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AA Hilbert-transform filter
BAn elliptical filter
CAn adaptive filter
DA notch filter

37. - E7G04

What is meant by the "op-amp input offset voltage"?

SelectAnswer
AThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
BThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
CThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
DThe differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero

38. - E7H02

What is a microphonic?

SelectAnswer
AChanges in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
BExcess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
CAn IC used for amplifying microphone signals
DDistortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
A100 to 1
B2.5 to 1
C1 to 1
D25 to 1

40. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

SelectAnswer
A2000
B6000
C3
D1/3

41. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

SelectAnswer
ABy varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
BBy transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
CBy transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
DBy the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

42. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
BA binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
DThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station

43. - E9A10

Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AShortening the radiating element
BAll these choices are correct
CInstalling a radial system
DIsolating the coax shield from ground

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7.5 degrees
B25 degrees
C75 degrees
D45 degrees

45. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional higher vertical angle lobes will appear
BThe low-angle radiation decreases
CThe low-angle radiation increases
DFewer vertical angle lobes will be present

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAs close to the transmitter as possible
BNear the center of the vertical radiator
CAs low as possible on the vertical radiator
DAt a voltage node

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A62 ohms
B50 ohms
C450 ohms
D75 ohms

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A8.5 meters
B7.0 meters
C13.3 meters
D10.6 meters

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage circles and current arcs
BResistance lines and reactance chords
CVoltage lines and current chords
DResistance circles and reactance arcs

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a bidirectional pattern
BIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
CIt has no clearly defined null
DAll these choices are correct

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-2

Figure E9-2