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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

SelectAnswer
AThe extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
BThe high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
CMicrowaves are ionizing radiation
DMicrowaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

2. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

SelectAnswer
AAny person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
BOnly a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
COnly a person named in an amateur station license grant
DAny person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

3. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
AYou must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
BYou may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
CYou must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
DYou must submit engineering drawings to the FAA

4. - E1C01

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

SelectAnswer
A170 Hz
B1.5 kHz
C60 Hz
D2.8 kHz

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
BAll these choices are correct
CA photocopy of the station license
DA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

SelectAnswer
AThey must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
BThey must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
CThey must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
DThey must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

7. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AThe equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
BIt was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
CIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
DIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

8. - E2A03

How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is reduced to I and Q components and the Q component is filtered out
BThe signal is passed through a mixer and the difference rather than the sum is transmitted
CThe signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
DThe signal is passed through a non-linear filter

9. - E2B04

How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

SelectAnswer
AColor lines are sent sequentially
BColor information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
CColor is sent in a color burst at the end of each line
DColor is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal

10. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

SelectAnswer
ATo allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
BTo relay calls to and from a DX station
CTo handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
DTo run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-speed CW identification to avoid fading
BJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
CTime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
DStoring and forwarding digital messages

12. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

SelectAnswer
A48 baud
B1200 baud
C300 baud
D110 baud

13. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

SelectAnswer
AA slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
BA gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
CA fluttery irregular fading
DThe returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B10 meters
C6 meters
D80 meters

15. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

SelectAnswer
AIncreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
BDecreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
CHigher levels of solar UV radiation
DAn increase in the critical frequency

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
BLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
CLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
DConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

17. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
ATemperature coefficient of the logic
BDecade divider accuracy
CInput attenuator accuracy
DTime base accuracy

18. - E4C15

What is reciprocal mixing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
BIn-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
CTwo digital signals combining from alternate time slots
DLocal oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals

19. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BDesensitization
CSquelch gain rollback
DQuieting

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
ADifferential-mode current
BReturn current
CReactive current only
DCommon-mode current

21. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

SelectAnswer
A157.8 Hz
B23.67 kHz
C47.3 kHz
D315.6 Hz

22. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A55 seconds
B220 seconds
C440 seconds
D110 seconds

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
APolar coordinates
BElliptical coordinates
CMaidenhead grid
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
APower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
BPower lost because of capacitor leakage
CWattless, nonproductive power
DPower consumed in circuit Q

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
BOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
CExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
DOnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current

26. - E6B10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

SelectAnswer
A1
B6
C5
D7

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A4
B1
C2
D3

28. - E6D11

Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite
BPowdered iron
CCeramic
DBrass

29. - E6E08

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
BThrough a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
CMMICs require no operating bias
DDirectly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

30. - E6F01

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AHoles
BProtons
CPhotons
DElectrons

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
BIt produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
CIt produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ASwitching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
BLinear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
CSwitching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
DThe power transistor is at saturation or cutoff most of the time

33. - E7C07

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

SelectAnswer
AA network with only three discrete parts
BA matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
CA Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
DA Phase Inverter Load network

34. - E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a ramp voltage as its output
BIt eliminates the need for a pass transistor
CThe control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
DThe conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

SelectAnswer
AA reactance modulator on the final amplifier
BA balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
CA reactance modulator on the oscillator
DA balanced modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

SelectAnswer
ASample rate
BProcessor latency
CSample width in bits
DSample clock phase noise

37. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
BIt increases linearly with increasing frequency
CIt does not vary with frequency
DIt decreases linearly with increasing frequency

38. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

SelectAnswer
APierce, Fenner and Beane
BColpitts, Hartley and Pierce
CTaft, Hartley and Pierce
DTaft, Pierce and negative feedback

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AVector analysis
BNumerical analysis
CDifferential analysis
DFourier analysis

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A47
B0.214
C2.14
D0.47

41. - E8C03

Why should phase-shifting of a PSK signal be done at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize bandwidth
BAll these choices are correct
CTo simplify modulation
DTo improve carrier suppression

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times
BHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
CReduce keying waveform rise and fall times
DLow-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

SelectAnswer
ADistance from the transmitter
BSoil conductivity
CThe standing wave ratio
DTake-off angle

44. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna will become mechanically unstable
BGround conductivity will not be accurately modeled
CThe computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
DThe resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

45. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
BA portable antenna erected using two push support poles
CA center-fed 1.25-wavelength antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)
DAn end-fed folded dipole antenna

46. - E9D06

What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
BIt is decreased
CIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
DIt is increased

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe gamma match
BThe stub match
CThe epsilon match
DThe delta match

48. - E9F04

What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery high impedance
BThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
CThe same as the output impedance of the generator
DVery low impedance

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AResistance circles and reactance arcs
BVoltage circles and current arcs
CResistance lines and reactance chords
DVoltage lines and current chords

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
CThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
DAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important

Figure E6-2

Figure E6-3