Anonymous User

Hamboozler

US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

SelectAnswer
A300 to 3000 MHz
B300 kHz to 3 MHz
C30 to 300 MHz
D3 to 30 MHz

2. - E1A09

What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BNotify the nearest FCC Field Engineers office
CNotify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
DDiscontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it

3. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
AAny FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
BOnly those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician Class
DAny FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

4. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

SelectAnswer
AAn international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
BAn indication of increased antenna reflected power
CThe internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
DA forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

SelectAnswer
AAny amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
BAny amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
COnly those of Amateur Extra Class operators
DOnly those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

SelectAnswer
AThey must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
BThey must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
CThey must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
DThey must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

7. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide additional spectrum for personal use
BTo allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
CTo provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
DTo provide for experimental amateur communications

8. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify regarding satellite communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhich sideband to use
BFM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
CThe 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
DThe 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands

9. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ASpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
BAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
CA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
DNarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

10. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting? in connection with HF contest operating?

SelectAnswer
AThe often-prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
BThe acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
CA manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
DAn automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

11. - E2D10

How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

SelectAnswer
AAn APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
BAll these choices are correct
CAPRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
DAn APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

12. - E2E05

Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

SelectAnswer
AMFSK
BPACTOR
CRTTY
DPSK31

13. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

SelectAnswer
ATemperature inversion
BWind shear
CDust devil
DThe jet stream

14. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
AOnly 30 meters to 10 meters
B160 meters to 10 meters
C6 meters to 2 meters
DOnly 160 meters to 40 meters

15. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the sun will cause disturbed conditions?

SelectAnswer
AWestward
BSouthward
CEastward
DNorthward

16. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
BAll these choices are correct
CAntenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
DAntenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
BThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
CThe transmitter is not properly neutralized
DThere is more power going into the antenna

18. - E4C02

Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

SelectAnswer
AA narrow IF filter
BA notch filter
CA properly adjusted product detector
DA front-end filter or pre-selector

19. - E4D06

What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?

SelectAnswer
AAmplifier desensitization
BNeutralization
CIntermodulation
DAdjacent channel interference

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
AFM signals can no longer be demodulated
BReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
CThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
DNearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards

21. - E5A15

Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?

SelectAnswer
ALower reactance
BHigher self-resonant frequency
CLower self-resonant frequency
DLower losses

22. - E5B12

What is admittance?

SelectAnswer
AThe term for the gain of a field effect transistor
BThe inverse of Q factor
CThe inverse of impedance
DThe turns ratio of a transformer

23. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
ABy X and R values
BBy real and imaginary parts
CBy Y and G values
DBy phase angle and magnitude

24. - E5D04

Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce noise figure
BTo reduce phase shift along the connection
CTo increase compensating capacitance
DTo increase neutralizing resistance

25. - E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

SelectAnswer
ABase-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
BBase-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
CBase-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
DBase-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts

26. - E6B03

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

SelectAnswer
AInductive bias
BReverse bias
CZero bias
DForward bias

27. - E6C10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
A2
B1
C4
D3

28. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
ACobalt and aluminum
BPolystyrene and polyethylene
CTeflon and Delrin
DFerrite and brass

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
ARadial lead
BSurface mount
CAxial lead
DTO-220

30. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A12 V
B0.5 V
C0.1 V
D1.5 V

31. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

SelectAnswer
AA multiplexer
BAn OR gate
CAn XOR gate
DA flip-flop

32. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ALow input impedance
BHigh filament voltage
CHigh power gain
DLow bandwidth

33. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

SelectAnswer
AIt is a notch filter
BIt is a high-pass filter
CIt is a band-pass filter
DIt is a low-pass filter

34. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
BThe inverter design does not require any output filtering
CIt uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
DIt uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle

35. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo remove third-order distortion products
BFor higher efficiency
CTo reduce impulse noise reception
DFor compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

36. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AA crystal-lattice filter
BAn adaptive filter
CA phase-inverting filter
DA Hilbert-transform filter

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A-0.23 volts
B2.3 volts
C-2.3 volts
D0.23 volts

38. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
AFrequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
BThe phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
CThe phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
DAmplitude values that represent the desired waveform

39. - E8A02

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

SelectAnswer
APhase reversal
BHarmonic regeneration
CSuccessive approximation
DLevel shifting

40. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
BIt increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
CIt decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
DIt does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

41. - E8C07

What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

SelectAnswer
A9.6 kHz
B5.76 kHz
C15.36 kHz
D4.8 kHz

42. - E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal can overpower interfering signals
BForeign language characters can be sent
CSome types of errors can be detected
DFaster transmission rate

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission line length
BAntenna height
CThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
DThe input power level

44. - E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

SelectAnswer
AGround conductivity will not be accurately modeled
BThe resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
CThe computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
DThe antenna will become mechanically unstable

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
BThe horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
CThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
DThe horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
A4 dB
B6 dB
C2 dB
D3 dB

47. - E9E11

What is the primary purpose of phasing lines when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

SelectAnswer
AIt allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
BIt ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
CIt prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
DIt creates a low-angle radiation pattern

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A13.3 meters
B7.0 meters
C8.5 meters
D10.6 meters

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AResistance lines and reactance chords
BVoltage circles and current arcs
CVoltage lines and current chords
DResistance circles and reactance arcs

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
BA four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant
CA stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
DA small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-3