US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	By the odor
B	Only with a carbon monoxide detector
C	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
D	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used

2. - E1A03

What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	14.070 MHz
B	14.149 MHz
C	14.100 MHz
D	14.349 MHz

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

Select	Answer
A	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
B	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
C	A letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
D	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

4. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
B	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
C	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
D	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm and 33 cm
B	70 cm and 13 cm
C	70 cm only
D	33 cm and 13 cm

6. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
B	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
C	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
D	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations

7. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
B	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
C	All these choices are correct
D	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

8. - E2A13

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Store-and-forward
B	Node hopping
C	Multi-satellite relaying
D	Digipeating

9. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	A special IF converter
B	A special front end limiter
C	No other hardware is needed
D	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

Select	Answer
A	Cable TV channels 41 through 43
B	The 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
C	Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
D	HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
B	Storing and forwarding digital messages
C	High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
D	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	PSK31
B	PACTOR
C	RTTY
D	MT63

13. - E3A14

What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Select	Answer
A	Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B	Waves that circle the Earth
C	Waves produced by a loop antenna
D	Waves with a rotating electric field

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	10 meters
B	80 meters
C	6 meters
D	20 meters

15. - E3C01

What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?

Select	Answer
A	Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
B	Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
C	Evaluating high voltage sources for x-rays
D	The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern

16. - E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
C	Q of the circuit
D	Amount of memory

17. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	Relative quality of the data
B	Frequency order of the measurements
C	The port or ports at which measurements are made
D	The relative time between measurements

18. - E4C15

What is reciprocal mixing?

Select	Answer
A	In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
B	Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
C	Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
D	Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals

19. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Too little gain
B	Lack of neutralization
C	Nonlinear circuits or devices
D	Positive feedback

20. - E4E02

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced with a digital signal processing noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	Ignition noise
B	All these choices are correct
C	Power line noise
D	Broadband white noise

21. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 MHz
B	23.5 kHz
C	7.12 kHz
D	7.12 MHz

22. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
B	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
C	The magnetic impedance of a circuit
D	The imaginary part of admittance

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Elliptical coordinates
B	Rectangular coordinates
C	Maidenhead grid
D	Faraday grid

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.866
B	0.5
C	1.73
D	0.577

25. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
B	Any FET without a channel
C	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
D	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
B	Forward DC bias current
C	A sub-harmonic pump signal
D	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

27. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
B	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
C	Large bypass capacitance is inherent
D	Bandwidth is very limited

28. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Teflon and Delrin
B	Ferrite and brass
C	Polystyrene and polyethylene
D	Cobalt and aluminum

29. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	DIP
B	Ball grid array
C	SOT
D	PLCC

30. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
B	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
C	An LED and a phototransistor
D	A lens and a photomultiplier

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1
B	It produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
C	It produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0
D	It produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1

32. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
B	Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
C	Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
D	Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal

33. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
B	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
C	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
D	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
B	All these choices are correct
C	Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
D	Provide a minimum load on the supply

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

36. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide access for debugging software
B	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
C	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
D	To reduce excess signal pressure levels

37. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
B	It does not vary with frequency
C	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
D	It increases linearly with increasing frequency

38. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
C	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
D	Taft, Hartley and Pierce

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

Select	Answer
A	A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
B	An error caused by irregular quantization step size
C	A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
D	An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal

40. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
B	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
C	A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
D	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

41. - E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The number of control characters in a message packet
B	The rate at which the waveform changes to convey information
C	The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
D	The duration of each bit in a message sent over the air

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
B	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
C	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
D	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A13

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Effective radiated power
B	Half-power bandwidth
C	Power factor
D	Apparent power

44. - E9B04

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E92?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	28 dB
C	38 dB
D	3 dB

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B	A type of ground-plane antenna
C	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
D	A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	4 dB
C	2 dB
D	3 dB

47. - E9E05

How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element reactance must be capacitive
B	The driven element reactance must be inductive
C	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	10.6 meters
B	7.0 meters
C	8.5 meters
D	13.3 meters

49. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance axis
B	Polar axis
C	Prime axis
D	Reactance axis

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
B	A small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
C	A form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
D	A four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant

Figure E9-3