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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ALocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
BIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
CBlood clotting from the intense magnetic field
DHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

2. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
B100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
D50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
BAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
CA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
DA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

4. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

SelectAnswer
AThe internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
BA forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
CAn international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
DAn indication of increased antenna reflected power

5. - E1D12

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

SelectAnswer
AA space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
BA message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
CA local repeater or linked repeater station
DAll these choices are correct

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum passing score of 77%
BMinimum passing score of 80%
CMinimum passing score of 70%
DMinimum passing score of 74%

7. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

SelectAnswer
AOnly on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
BOnly on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
COnly on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
DOnly on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz

8. - E2A12

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
ATo delay download of telemetry between satellites
BTo store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
CTo relay messages between satellites
DTo upload operational software for the transponder

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning two fields simultaneously
BBy scanning each field from bottom to top
CBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
DBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

10. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AA wireless router running custom firmware
BAn optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
CA 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
DA 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem

11. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

SelectAnswer
AShort transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
BUse of special digital modes
CAll these choices are correct
D15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

12. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A300-baud packet
BMFSK16
CPSK31
D170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

SelectAnswer
ACW
BSSB
CFM
DRTTY

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
BAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
CAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice
DAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice

15. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

SelectAnswer
ACritical frequency for vertical transmissions
BDuration of long-delayed echoes
CDirection and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
DGeomagnetic field stability

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
BConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
CLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
DLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is more power going into the antenna
BThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
CThe transmitter is not properly neutralized
DThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

18. - E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ACross-modulation interference
BFrequency discrimination
CCapture effect
DDesensitization

19. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

SelectAnswer
AToo little gain
BNonlinear circuits or devices
CLack of neutralization
DPositive feedback

20. - E4E02

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced with a digital signal processing noise filter?

SelectAnswer
AIgnition noise
BAll these choices are correct
CPower line noise
DBroadband white noise

21. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
BThe current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
CThe voltage and current are in phase
DThe voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

22. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A110 seconds
B220 seconds
C55 seconds
D440 seconds

23. - E5C01

Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

SelectAnswer
AOmega
B+jX
CDelta
D-jX

24. - E5D13

How many watts are consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

SelectAnswer
A200 watts
B70.7 watts
C141.4 watts
D100 watts

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
BExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
COnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
DHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

26. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

SelectAnswer
AMore constant reverse avalanche voltage
BMuch higher reverse voltage breakdown
CLess forward voltage drop
DLonger carrier retention time

27. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

SelectAnswer
ALarge bypass capacitance is inherent
BBandwidth is very limited
CThe input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
DThe input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

28. - E6D01

Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

SelectAnswer
ATemporary changes of the core permeability could result
BRF susceptance would increase
CHarmonics and distortion could result
DMagnetic flux would increase with frequency

29. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms
B450 ohms
C10 ohms
D300 ohms

30. - E6F01

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AHoles
BElectrons
CProtons
DPhotons

31. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
BIt produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
CIt produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
DIt decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display

32. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

SelectAnswer
AA high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
BA temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
CA matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
DA low-pass filter to remove switching signal components

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

SelectAnswer
AA crystal filter
BA DSP filter
CA cavity filter
DAn L-C filter

34. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
BIt uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle
CThe inverter design does not require any output filtering
DIt uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

35. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AA heterodyne enhancer
BA pre-emphasis network
CA de-emphasis network
DA heterodyne suppressor

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

SelectAnswer
AReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
BRemoving unnecessary significant digits
CAttenuating the signal
DConverting data to binary code decimal form

37. - E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

SelectAnswer
AVery high
B1000 ohms
CVery low
D100 ohms

38. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
AFrequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
BThe phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
CThe phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
DAmplitude values that represent the desired waveform

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AFourier analysis
BDifferential analysis
CVector analysis
DNumerical analysis

40. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
BIt increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
CIt decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
DIt varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
AThey are the same
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CBaud is only used for RTTY
DBaud is twice the symbol rate

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
ADirect sequence
BBinary phase-shift keying
CFrequency hopping
DPhase compandored spread spectrum

43. - E9A02

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A420 watts
B78.7 watts
C1977 watts
D286 watts

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A12 dB
B24 dB
C18 dB
D14 dB

45. - E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
CA multi-band trap antenna
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with aÿ4:1 balun

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ANear the center of the vertical radiator
BAt a voltage node
CAs close to the transmitter as possible
DAs low as possible on the vertical radiator

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
CConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
DConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

48. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A10.4 meters
B6.9 meters
C5.2 meters
D8.3 meters

49. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

SelectAnswer
AIn fractions of antenna electrical frequency
BIn fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
CIn fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
DIn fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
BIt has a bidirectional pattern
CAll these choices are correct
DIt has no clearly defined null

Figure E9-1