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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
BEnsure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
CEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
DEnsure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits

2. - E1A12

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

SelectAnswer
AThey are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
BThey are not permitted above 54 MHz
CNone; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
DThey are restricted to phone band segments

3. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
BThe amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
CThe amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
DThe amateur station must cease operation

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
BWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
CNever
DOnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions

5. - E1D12

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BA local repeater or linked repeater station
CA message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
DA space station, beacon station, or telecommand station

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

SelectAnswer
AThey must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
BThey must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
CThey must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
DThey must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

7. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
BCommunications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
CCommunications that have religious content
DCommunications in a language other than English

8. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

SelectAnswer
AAn isotropic antenna
BA linearly polarized antenna
CA circularly polarized antenna
DA log-periodic dipole array

9. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

SelectAnswer
AA special front end limiter
BA special IF converter
CNo other hardware is needed
DA special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses

10. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

SelectAnswer
AThe most common set of contest rules
BThe rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
CA method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
DA standard for submission of electronic contest logs

11. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
AMSK144
BWSPR
CAPRS
DHellschreiber

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
ABy exchanging ACK/NAK packets
BAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
CIt depends on the lunar phase
DStations take turns on alternate days

13. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
A10 MHz - 14 MHz
B28 MHz - 148 MHz
C220 MHz - 450 MHz
D1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

14. - E3B07

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThey are bent toward the magnetic poles
BThey become depolarized
CThey become phase locked
DThey become elliptically polarized

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass B
BClass X
CClass A
DClass M

16. - E4A03

Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA wattmeter
BA logic analyzer
CA spectrum analyzer
DA time-domain reflectometer

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is more power going into the antenna
BThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
CThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
DThe transmitter is not properly neutralized

18. - E4C04

What is the noise figure of a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
BThe ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
CThe ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
DThe ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise

19. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
ASquelch gain rollback
BDesensitization
CQuieting
DCross-modulation interference

20. - E4E02

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced with a digital signal processing noise filter?

SelectAnswer
APower line noise
BIgnition noise
CAll these choices are correct
DBroadband white noise

21. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
BReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
CResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
DReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance

22. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A220 seconds
B440 seconds
C55 seconds
D110 seconds

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
APolar coordinates
BMaidenhead grid
CFaraday grid
DElliptical coordinates

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.73
B0.5
C0.866
D0.577

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

SelectAnswer
AExcess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
BHoles in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
COnly P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
DOnly N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

26. - E6B08

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

SelectAnswer
AMetal-semiconductor junction
BElectrolytic rectifier
CPIN junction
DThermionic emission diode

27. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

SelectAnswer
AA programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
BA logic circuit that can be modified during use
CProgrammable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
DA type of transistor whose gain can be changed by digital logic circuits

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AResistance
BThermal impedance
CPermeability
DReactivity

29. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

SelectAnswer
ASOT
BPLCC
CDIP
DBall grid array

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of light to electrical energy
BThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
CThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
DThe tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

SelectAnswer
A1
B8
C2
D4

32. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
AFixed bias
BEmitter bypass
CSelf bias
DOutput load resistor

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

SelectAnswer
AAn L-C filter
BA cavity filter
CA DSP filter
DA crystal filter

34. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide fixed DC bias for Q1
BTo self-resonate at the hum frequency
CIt is a brute force filter for the output
DIt bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1

35. - E7E11

Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?

SelectAnswer
APhase comparator
BDiscriminator
CPhase detector
DProduct detector

36. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling SDR receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

SelectAnswer
AMissing codes and jitter
BReference voltage level and sample width in bits
CData storage transfer rate
DSample clock phase noise

37. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E73 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A94
B24
C0.21
D47

38. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

SelectAnswer
AA hybrid synthesizer
BA direct digital synthesizer
CA diode-switching matrix synthesizer
DA phase-locked loop synthesizer

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
B256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
C256
D8

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
BThe ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
CThe type of modulation used by the transmitter
DThe bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C09

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

SelectAnswer
AExcess 3 code
BExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
CGray code
DBinary Coded Decimal Code

42. - E8D09

What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

SelectAnswer
A-30 dB
B+10 dB
C+15 dB
D-20 dB

43. - E9A13

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

SelectAnswer
AApparent power
BEffective radiated power
CPower factor
DHalf-power bandwidth

44. - E9B07

How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from a theoretical isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

SelectAnswer
AThe radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna
BThe total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
CThey are the same
DThe total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

45. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole constructed from zip cord
BAn omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
CAn end-fed dipole antenna
DA vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

46. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

SelectAnswer
AArrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
BStack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
CArrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
DStack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

47. - E9E08

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

SelectAnswer
AIt is used to divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance
BIt divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
CIt is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
DIt is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source

48. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AThe index of shielding for coaxial cable
BThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
CThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
DThe ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance

49. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ARadiation resistance
BImpedance along transmission lines
CRadio propagation
DAntenna radiation pattern

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
BA four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant
CA small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
DA form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-2