US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Technician only

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	15 hours to several days
D	14 days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
B	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	400 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	Only one diode is required
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulated RF
B	Double-sideband modulated RF
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Image response
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	2:1
C	1:4
D	1:2

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point