US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	No US stations should call
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All these choices are correct
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transformers and transducers
D	Diodes

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff frequency
B	Notch frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Lower ground losses
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom