US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	Technician only
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	Under no circumstances
D	When messages are encrypted

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Nets have priority
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
C	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	All these choices are correct
C	The battery charging system
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	3.0 microfarads
D	33.3 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	8
C	6
D	16

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Odd-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Overmodulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Backscatter propagation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1