US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When high precision is desired
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Vestigial sideband
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	5F1-3F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very high
C	Very low
D	Approximately 300 ohms