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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BBy calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
CBy measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
DBy calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BFuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
CThe generator must be insulated from ground
DThe generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters
B30 meters
C12 meters
D17 meters

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

SelectAnswer
AThe FCC
BThe ITU
CThe control operator
DThe IEEE

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AYou must keep a record of all third-party traffic
BYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
CIf you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
DYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
BOnly on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
COn any General or Technician class band segment
DOn any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThe third party is speaking in a language other than English
CThe third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
DThe third party is not a US citizen

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AIt is commonly accepted amateur practice
BBecause it is fully compatible with an AM detector
CLower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
DLower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly SSTV contacts
COnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
DOnly digital contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
BAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
CAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
DThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

SelectAnswer
AAlpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
BAble, Baker, Charlie, Dog
CAmerica, Boston, Canada, Denmark
DAdam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

SelectAnswer
A850 Hz
B85 Hz
C170 Hz
D425 Hz

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

SelectAnswer
A30 meters and 20 meters
B80 meters and 160 meters
C60 meters and 40 meters
D15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
BSignal strength increased by 3 dB
CPeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
DA slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

SelectAnswer
ABecause it is the highest
BBecause of the Doppler effect
CBecause it is the densest
DBecause of temperature inversions

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

SelectAnswer
AWhen using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
BALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
CThe ALC action distorts the signal
DAll these choices are correct

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

SelectAnswer
AWhen measuring the frequency of an oscillator
BWhen adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
CWhen testing logic circuits
DWhen high precision is desired

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
AAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
BConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
CGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
DPlace a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
BAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
CAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
DAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

SelectAnswer
AOperating bandwidth may be very limited
BHarmonic radiation may increase
CQ of the antenna will be very low
DShort antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

SelectAnswer
AResonance causes impedance to be very low
BImpedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
CResonance causes impedance to be very high
DImpedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

SelectAnswer
A339.4 volts
B169.7 volts
C240.0 volts
D84.8 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
BThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
CAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
DThe input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
BThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
CThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
DThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

SelectAnswer
AMode Modulated Integrated Circuit
BMetal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
CMulti-Mode Integrated Circuit
DMonolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
BOnly one diode is required
CMore current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
DThe output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

SelectAnswer
AClass AB
BClass A
CClass C
DClass B

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

SelectAnswer
AFewer digital components are required
BMixing products are greatly reduced
CA wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
DThe DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

SelectAnswer
APulse modulation
BPhase modulation
CMultiplex modulation
DAmplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
ATo aid in tuning your transmitter
BTo prevent overmodulation
CSome modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
DTo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
BThe signal is 3 dB over S9
CThe signal is S3 (weak signals)
DThe signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

SelectAnswer
AHigh SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
BHigh SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
CThere is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
DHigh SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

SelectAnswer
AShorter radials
BLower radiation resistance
CLower ground losses
DLower feed point impedance

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A1 wavelength
B3/4 wavelength
C1/2 wavelength
D1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

SelectAnswer
ABroadside to the plane of the halo
BOpposite the feed point
COmnidirectional in the plane of the halo
DOn the same side as the feed point