US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the hot wires
C	Only the neutral wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Decrease power and continue to transmit
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	6 dB
C	15 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	Its conductivity
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Detection
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	High and low
C	On and off
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To enable multiband operation

Figure G7-1