US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the hot wires
D	All wires

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	17 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	All these choices are correct
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Signals have a fluttering sound
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	Scatter propagation occurs only at night

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	0.17 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	Its conductivity
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Rolloff frequency

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	Mark and space
C	On and off
D	High and low

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
D	It produces only vertically polarized radiation

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	All these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Opposite the feed point
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo