US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	In series with each ground lead
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Decrease power and continue to transmit
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	I have received and understood
C	Send slower
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the north
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	28 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
B	All these choices are correct
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Carrier suppression
C	Transmitter power output
D	Impedance

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Control grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	3
D	6

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	RF input
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands