US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	50 feet
C	100 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	15 hours to several days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The D region
C	The F2 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Impedance of coaxial cable

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	2500 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	8
C	16
D	6

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Image and harmonic
B	Cutoff and rolloff
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Pole and zero

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	5F1-3F2
C	3F1-F2
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
D	The signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

Figure G7-1