US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	All HF bands
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	30 meters and 20 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters and 40 meters

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The control computers
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	67 ohms
D	75 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Return loss
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The average
B	The ratio
C	The sum and difference
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and off
B	Mark and space
C	High and low
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:2
D	1:4

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	33 feet
C	8 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency