US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 1

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Switch to the opposite sideband
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	All these choices are correct
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	All these choices are correct
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	Filter
C	IF amplifier
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	4:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying the base loading inductance