US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send QRL in Morse code
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Even-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	84 feet
C	42 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high