US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	We have worked before
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An ammeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	120 volts
B	360 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	AM
C	FM
D	SSB

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Detection
C	Modulation
D	Filtering

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	2F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:5
C	5:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat

Figure G7-1