US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	All these choices are correct
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	General and Technician
C	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
D	Technician only

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 1
C	Region 2
D	Region 4

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Follow the voluntary band plan
C	All these choices are correct
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
B	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
C	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Farad
D	Siemens

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	17 ohms

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
B	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	1:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To enable multiband operation