US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its frequency
D	Its power density

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
D	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The control operator
D	The FCC

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	SK
D	KN

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Toward the north
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Less prone to overload
D	Faster response

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Susceptance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the average of the branch currents
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	3
D	6

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier gain
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Frequency inversion

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance