US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Anywhere in the band
C	No part
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improve ground wave propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Clearly audible speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	A length of transmission line
C	A Pi-network
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	MMIC
D	Analog

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Phase inversion
C	Heterodyning
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Varicode
C	Volumetric
D	Binary

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	33 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very high
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very low