US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	100 percent copy

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To follow standard radiogram structure
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	28 days
D	14 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Higher precision
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	0.707
C	1.00
D	2.00

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	Long life
C	High discharge current
D	High voltage

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Half-wave
C	Full-wave
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	A digital mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Return loss
B	Q
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies