US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	KN
C	AR
D	SK

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the maximum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
D	Poor propagation at any time of day

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A field strength meter
C	An oscilloscope
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	2500 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	100%
C	50%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Neper frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Notch frequency
D	Rolloff frequency

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	2F1-F2
C	5F1-3F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Inverted V
C	Sloper
D	Lazy H