US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 16

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Single phase modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	1 to 2 hours
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Faraday rotation
C	Scatter
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced dip
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Inherently more stable
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	Less than 50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	50%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The opposite of fade margin
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Request retransmission of the packet
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 100 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They have poor harmonic rejection