US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its power density
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The control operator
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	The ALC action distorts the signal
C	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Faster response
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	173 volts
C	346 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	70 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	8-tone frequency shift keying
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Intercept point
C	Even-order
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Long path propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To prevent out-of-band operation