US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The control operator
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	The E region is not present
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Greater precision
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A length of transmission line
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	1500 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	3.0 microfarads
D	0.33 microfarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	FM
C	SSB
D	AM

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	16 kHz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	8 feet
C	33 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very low

Figure G7-1