US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All these choices are correct
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	All of the above
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	28 days
D	14 days

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Susceptance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation
B	Heterodyning
C	Rolloff
D	Detection

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Preamble

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	They are all the same length
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point