US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	Channels 1 through 4
C	No part
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	5000 watts
C	2500 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	67 ohms
D	150 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	40 GHz
B	500 MHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	AM
C	SSB
D	FM

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Entire file received correctly
B	Packet was received without error
C	Request retransmission of the packet
D	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
C	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
D	In the plane of the loop