US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
D	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must be for other licensed amateurs
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Closing station now
C	Operating full break-in
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	CW

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	0.707
C	1.00
D	2.00

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Screen grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	Its conductivity
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The ratio
C	The arithmetic product
D	The average

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground