US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All these choices are correct
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	All these choices are correct
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 3
C	Region 4
D	Region 2

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Improve HF long path propagation
B	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced peak
C	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	“Picket fencing”
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Susceptance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	60 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	10.7 GHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	902 MHz
D	432 MHz

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance

Figure G7-1