US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	16 years
C	21 years
D	18 years

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It allows “hands free” operation
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Printer/Server
B	RJ-45
C	Gateway
D	Terminal Node Controller

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	1.00
C	1.414
D	2.00

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Screen grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Control grid

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	Its conductivity
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	Only one diode is required
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Cutoff frequency

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground