US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	200 feet
C	250 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Single phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Receiver
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Shunt
C	Series-parallel
D	Bypass

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Control grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	All these choices are correct
C	Filtering
D	Detection

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	5F1-3F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	33 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

Figure G7-1