US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All these choices are correct
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	250 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	All of the above
D	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	All these choices are correct
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Susceptance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	360 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase inversion

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Balanced converter
C	Multiplier
D	Mixer

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1