US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	A special hardware modem
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	All these choices are correct
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Z
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	75 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Notch depth
D	Rolloff

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high