US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The upper frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	All these choices are correct
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	It provides more power output

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	AR
C	SK
D	BK

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	All these choices are correct
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Overmodulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:2
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter radials
B	Lower ground losses
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Wide bandwidth

Figure G7-1