US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	100 watts
C	10 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Send slower
C	Change frequency
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 4 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	1,000 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its conductivity
B	Its thickness
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	Vestigial sideband
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Local oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	Beat frequency oscillator

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic suppression
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Polarization diversity
D	Wide bandwidth

Figure G7-1