US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
C	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced peak
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Impedance of coaxial cable
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Shunt
C	Bypass
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3,583 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	Less than 50%
C	50%
D	100%

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Even-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands

Figure G7-1