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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

SelectAnswer
ATake action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
BFile an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
CSecure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
DAll these choices are correct

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

SelectAnswer
AUnground the base of the tower
BNotify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
CMake sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
DAll these choices are correct

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

SelectAnswer
A7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
CAll these choices are correct
D21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

SelectAnswer
AThe ITU
BThe IEEE
CThe control operator
DThe FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A10 watts RMS
B1500 watts PEP
CERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
DERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

SelectAnswer
AThe person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
BNone of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
CThe person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
DThe person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
ANo third-party traffic may be transmitted
BThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
CThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
DThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulation
BSingle phase modulation
CSingle sideband
DDouble sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

SelectAnswer
ANo more than 2 hours per month
BNo more than 1 hour per month
CNo more than 2 hours per week
DNo more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

SelectAnswer
AI am ready to receive
BThere is interference on the frequency
CI am quitting for the day
DYou are sending too fast

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

SelectAnswer
ACompare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
BCompare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
CAll these choices are correct
DCompare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

SelectAnswer
AAn amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
BAll of the above
CA wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
DA form of Packet Radio

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

SelectAnswer
A14 days
B28 days
C4 to 8 minutes
D15 hours to several days

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
ASignal strength increased by 3 dB
BA slightly delayed echo might be heard
CPeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
DThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AScatter
BFaraday rotation
CShort-path
DChordal hop

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATo balance the transmitter audio frequency response
BTo increase overall efficiency
CTo reduce harmonic radiation
DTo prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

SelectAnswer
ATwo audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
BTwo non-harmonically related audio signals
CTwo swept frequency tones
DTwo audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
APlace a ferrite choke on the cable
BAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
CGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
DConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
BAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
CAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
DAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce radiation resistance
BTo lower the radiation angle
CTo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
DTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

SelectAnswer
AAdmittance
BConductance
CSusceptance
DReluctance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

SelectAnswer
AThe RMS value
BThe peak-to-peak value
CThe reciprocal of the RMS value
DThe peak value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
A12 to 1
B3.5 to 1
C144 to 1
D24 to 1

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

SelectAnswer
A0.7 volts
B0.1 volt
C0.3 volts
D1.0 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

SelectAnswer
A40 GHz
B50 MHz
C4 GHz
D500 MHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 1
BSymbol 4
CSymbol 6
DSymbol 7

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

SelectAnswer
A100%
B50%
CLess than 50%
DMore than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
BUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
CUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
DUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

SelectAnswer
ASignal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
BThe transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
CThe transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
DSignal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

SelectAnswer
AMixer interference
BIntermediate interference
CImage response
DQuadrature response

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

SelectAnswer
AA 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
BA 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
CA code using SELCAL and LISTEN
DA code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
BThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
CThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
DThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily increases
BIt is unaffected by the location of the feed point
CIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
DIt steadily decreases

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A1/4 wavelength
B1/2 wavelength
C3/4 wavelength
D1 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

SelectAnswer
AVery low
BApproximately 300 ohms
CVery high
DApproximately 50 ohms

Figure G7-1