US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	General and Technician
D	Technician only

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	All these choices are correct
C	Excessive background noise
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Susceptance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Screen grid
C	Control grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Digital
C	Programmable Logic
D	Analog

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	FT8
C	MSK144
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	33 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands