US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK code
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The F1 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ammeter
C	A signal generator
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	25.9 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	12.2 percent

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	120 volts
B	25.5 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	High stability

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	3
C	16
D	6

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulated RF
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:5
C	2:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground