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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AIts duty cycle
BIts frequency
CAll these choices are correct
DIts power density

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

SelectAnswer
AAll wires
BOnly the hot wires
COnly the neutral wire
DOnly the ground wire

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

SelectAnswer
AThe upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
BThe lower frequency portion
CThe lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
DThe upper frequency portion

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
BOccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
CUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
DEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1500 watts PEP output
B200 watts PEP output
C50 watts PEP output
DAn effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

SelectAnswer
A18 years
B16 years
CThere is no age limit
D21 years

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

SelectAnswer
AUnder no circumstances
BWhen messages are encrypted
CWhen messages are not encrypted
DWhen under automatic control

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

SelectAnswer
AAny caller is welcome to respond
BOnly stations in Germany
CAny stations outside the lower 48 states
DOnly contest stations

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
COnly digital contacts
DOnly SSTV contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
BAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
CThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
DThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission using Quick Response Protocol
BRemote piloted model control
CLow-power transmit operation
DTraffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
BTo provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
CTo provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
DTo provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

SelectAnswer
AHF communication is improved
BHF communication is disturbed
CVHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
DVHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BCheck the A-index
CUse a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
DSend a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
BThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
CThe lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
DThe highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

SelectAnswer
ANo change will be observed
BA pronounced dip
CA pronounced peak
DA slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AAn oscilloscope uses less power
BComplex impedances can be easily measured
CGreater precision
DComplex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

SelectAnswer
APlacing low-pass filters on all feed lines
BUsing surge suppressor power outlets
CBonding all equipment enclosures together
DBuilding all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
BAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
CAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
DAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

SelectAnswer
ASeries-parallel
BBypass
CFull-wave bridge
DShunt

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

SelectAnswer
AImpedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
BResonance causes impedance to be very low
CImpedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
DResonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

SelectAnswer
A2.00
B0.707
C1.414
D1.00

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

SelectAnswer
AA capacitor in parallel
BA capacitor in series
CAn inductor in series
DAn inductor in parallel

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh discharge current
BRapid recharge
CLong life
DHigh voltage

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThe magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
CMost of the magnetic field is contained in the core
DLarge values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt eliminates ground loop current
BIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
CIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
DIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AAn amplifier and a divider
BA frequency multiplier and a mixer
CA circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
DA filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
BUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
CUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
DUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
BThe bandwidth of the modulated signal
CThe carrier frequency that contains the signal
DSpurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

SelectAnswer
AImage frequency
BLocal oscillator
CBeat frequency oscillator
DRF input

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient modulation
BOvermodulation
CLong path propagation
DBackscatter propagation

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
BHigher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
CHigher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
DHigher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ABi-directional in azimuth
BOmnidirectional in azimuth
CIsotropic
DHemispherical

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThe physical length of the boom
CThe number of elements on the boom
DThe spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

SelectAnswer
AIt allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
BIt allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
CIt narrows the main lobe in elevation
DIt narrows the main lobe in azimuth