US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	All these choices are correct
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	18 years
C	There is no age limit
D	16 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	An oscilloscope
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Peak and valley current points
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Full-wave
C	Half-wave
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	263 feet
C	132 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To enable multiband operation