US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	There is no age limit
C	18 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	4 to 8 minutes
D	14 days

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
B	The E region is not present
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
B	All these choices are correct
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	All these choices are correct
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	0.07 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Packets will be routed incorrectly
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1