US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 4
C	Region 1
D	Region 2

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Excessive background noise
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	245 volts
C	173 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	0.33 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	500 MHz
C	50 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Image and harmonic
B	Pole and zero
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Cutoff and rolloff

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Quadrature response
C	Mixer interference
D	Image response

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MSK144
C	FT8
D	MFSK32

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance