US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To follow standard radiogram structure
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All these choices are correct
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ohmmeter
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	BNC

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	A digital mixer
C	An analog mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	WSPR
C	PSK31
D	SSB-SC

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside to the loop