US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes radiation poisoning
B	It cools body tissue
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When high precision is desired
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Return loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Q

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Odd-order
C	Intercept point
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Overmodulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	1:5

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance