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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

SelectAnswer
AIt causes radiation poisoning
BIt heats body tissue
CIt causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
DIt cools body tissue

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

SelectAnswer
AOvervoltage on the hot wires
BCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
CCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
DAll these choices are correct

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

SelectAnswer
AThe entire band
B28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
BAt any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
CUnder no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
DAmateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
BERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C10 watts RMS
D1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

SelectAnswer
AThe Federal Communications Commission
BThe Universal Licensing System
CThe Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
DA Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

SelectAnswer
AAnywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
BAnywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
COn any band segment where digital operation is permitted
DOnly in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

SelectAnswer
ALower sideband
BDouble sideband
CSuppressed sideband
DUpper sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly digital contacts
BOnly SSTV contacts
COnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
DOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

SelectAnswer
ABreaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
BAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
CTransmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
DAutomatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

SelectAnswer
ASay “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
BTransmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
CRepeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
DSign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

SelectAnswer
AA vertically polarized antenna
BComputer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
CReceiver attenuator set to -12 dB
DA special hardware modem

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
BThe short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
CThe solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
DThe relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
APeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
BSignal strength increased by 3 dB
CThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
DA slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

SelectAnswer
AThe lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
BThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
CThe highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
DThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
BTo reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
CTo reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
DTo reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
AA signal generator
BAn oscilloscope
CAn ohmmeter
DAn ammeter

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

SelectAnswer
AForward-biased diode
BBypass inductor
CBypass capacitor
DReverse-biased diode

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
BAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
CAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
DAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
BTo prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
CTo limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
DTo prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

SelectAnswer
AThe product of current and reactance
BThe product of current and voltage
CThe ratio of voltage to current
DThe ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

SelectAnswer
A20.6 percent
B12.2 percent
C10.9 percent
D25.9 percent

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A0.17 ohms
B17 ohms
C80 ohms
D5.9 ohms

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

SelectAnswer
ATo decrease plate resistance
BTo reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
CTo increase efficiency
DTo increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

SelectAnswer
AA nickel plated version of the PL-259
BA low noise figure VHF connector
CA small bayonet connector used for data circuits
DA moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

SelectAnswer
AA steady DC voltage
BA series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
CA series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
DA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATo cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
BTo keep the carrier on frequency
CTo limit the modulation index
DTo eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
BUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
CUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
DUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe carrier frequency that contains the signal
BThe waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
CThe bandwidth of the modulated signal
DSpurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt is required by FCC rules
BIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
CIt results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
DIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

SelectAnswer
A2.4 GHz
B432 MHz
C902 MHz
D10.7 GHz

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

SelectAnswer
A1:1
BBetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C5:1
DBetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIsotropic
BHemispherical
COmnidirectional in azimuth
DBi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe physical length of the boom
BThe spacing of each element along the boom
CThe number of elements on the boom
DAll these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground