US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	All these choices are correct
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A US operator/primary station license
B	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Change frequency
D	Repeat everything twice

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	All these choices are correct
C	Antenna and feed line
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	15 dB
C	6 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Resistance is cancelled

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	Its reactance increases
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Forward biased
C	Reverse biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	FM
C	AM
D	All these choices are correct

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	10.7 GHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1