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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AOnly stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
BOnly stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
CAll stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
DAll commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

SelectAnswer
AHigh voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
BLead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
CTin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
DRF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

SelectAnswer
A60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

SelectAnswer
ANo more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
BThe frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
CAll these choices are correct
DThe frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A200 watts PEP output
B1000 watts PEP output
C2000 watts PEP output
D1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

SelectAnswer
AAt least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
BAt least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
CAt least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
DAt least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
CWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
DWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

SelectAnswer
AAttenuator level
BRF clipping level
CTransmit audio or microphone gain
DAntenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AExcept during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
BNets have priority
CContest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
DQSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

SelectAnswer
AIncrease your power
BRepeat everything twice
CSend slower
DChange frequency

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATraffic relay procedure net operation
BLow-power transmit operation
CTransmission using Quick Response Protocol
DRemote piloted model control

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
BApproximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
CAnywhere in the voice portion of the band
DAnywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

SelectAnswer
ARipples in the geomagnetic force
BA thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
CA temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
DA sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

SelectAnswer
AThe Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
BThe Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
CThe Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
DThe Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AScatter
BChordal hop
CShort-path
DFaraday rotation

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

SelectAnswer
AWhen using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
BThe ALC action distorts the signal
CAll these choices are correct
DALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AAn oscilloscope
BA wavemeter
CA field strength meter
DA sidetone monitor

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AA ground loop
BCorrosion of the ground rod
COverheating of ground straps
DHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

SelectAnswer
A6 dB
B12 dB
C18 dB
D15 dB

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

SelectAnswer
AThe socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
BThe DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
CThe socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
DDrawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BSusceptance
CAdmittance
DReluctance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

SelectAnswer
A530 watts
B1500 watts
C1060 watts
D2120 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A75 ohms
B67 ohms
C300 ohms
D150 ohms

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
BThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
CThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
DThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ABNC
BPL-259
CRCA Phono
DType N

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 5
BSymbol 11
CSymbol 1
DSymbol 4

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
BThe number of stages in the divider
CThe time delay of the lag circuit
DThe number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize radiation resistance
BTo reduce power supply ripple
CTo minimize transmitter power output
DTo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

SelectAnswer
AExcessive bandwidth
BFrequency drift
CInsufficient audio
DInsufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
ALower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
BBandwidth is half the symbol rate
CSymbol rate and bandwidth are not related
DHigher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

SelectAnswer
ARequest retransmission of the packet
BReceiving station connected and ready for transmissions
CEntire file received correctly
DPacket was received without error

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

SelectAnswer
AThe radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
BThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
CThe frequency of the signal and the length of the line
DThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A8 feet
B21 feet
C16 feet
D11 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require any inductors or capacitors
BIt does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
CAll these choices are correct
DIt is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
DA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1