US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the neutral wire
B	Only the ground wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It allows “hands free” operation

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am ready to receive

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	CW
C	USB
D	LSB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Siemens
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	692 volts
C	245 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	360 volts
C	40 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	Its conductivity
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Filtering
B	Detection
C	Modulation
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Frequency inversion
C	Heterodyning
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna