US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The ITU

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only contest stations
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	All these choices are correct
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	15 hours to several days
C	14 days
D	28 days

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ampere
C	Farad
D	Ohm

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	17 ohms

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	MMIC
C	Programmable Logic
D	Digital

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The average
B	The ratio
C	The arithmetic product
D	The sum and difference

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very low
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1