US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	200 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Send slower
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Control grid

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	Its thickness
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Phase inversion
C	Frequency inversion
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MSK144
C	MFSK32
D	FT8

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Sloper
C	Inverted V
D	Lazy H