US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	All HF bands
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	250 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Receiver
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Transmitter power output
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	360 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	RCA Phono
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	132 feet
C	84 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground