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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AOnly stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
BOnly stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
CAll commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
DAll stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

SelectAnswer
AAll wires
BOnly the ground wire
COnly the hot wires
DOnly the neutral wire

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
BAmateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
CAmateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
DAmateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

SelectAnswer
AWhen the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
BOnly when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
COnly when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
DOnly when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

SelectAnswer
A1200 watts PEP output
B1500 watts PEP output
C1000 watts PEP output
D200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
BOn any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
COnly on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
DOn any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
BThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
CThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
DNo third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ADouble sideband
BLower sideband
CSuppressed sideband
DUpper sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

SelectAnswer
AOnly a RACES net control operator
BOnly a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
CA person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
DAny control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
AReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B100 percent copy
CChirpy or unstable signal
DKey clicks

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
A180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
BAlong the gray line
CToward the north
DToward the rising sun

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

SelectAnswer
AAlways call on the station’s frequency
BFind a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
CFind a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
DCall on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

SelectAnswer
AIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
BIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
CIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
DNone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

SelectAnswer
A180 miles
B12,000 miles
C2,500 miles
D1,200 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

SelectAnswer
AShort distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
BLong path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
CPropagation near the MUF
DDouble hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

SelectAnswer
ANo change will be observed
BA pronounced dip
CA slow, rhythmic oscillation
DA pronounced peak

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

SelectAnswer
APercentage of carrier phase shift
BPercentage of frequency modulation
CPercentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
DLinearity

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
APlace a ferrite choke on the cable
BGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
CAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
DConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt reduces intermodulation distortion
BIt reduces harmonic distortion
CIt increases peak power
DIt increases average power

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure the battery is placed terminals-up
BThe solar panel must have a charge controller
CGround the solar panel outer metal framework
DA series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BA Pi-network
CA length of transmission line
DA transformer

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

SelectAnswer
A173 volts
B245 volts
C692 volts
D346 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

SelectAnswer
A40 volts
B25.5 volts
C360 volts
D120 volts

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh discharge current
BHigh voltage
CRapid recharge
DLong life

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ARCA Phono
BBNC
CPL-259
DType N

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 11
BSymbol 4
CSymbol 5
DSymbol 1

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AAn amplifier and a divider
BA circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
CA filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
DA frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
ARelatively high-power output
BVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
CPure sine wave output
DExtremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

SelectAnswer
AModulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
BModulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
CModulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
DModulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

SelectAnswer
ARolloff
BIntermodulation
CDetection
DHeterodyning

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

SelectAnswer
AWSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
BDMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
CFT8, FT4, and FST4
DWinlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

SelectAnswer
AAttenuation decreases
BAttenuation increases
CAttenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
DAttenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

SelectAnswer
ALower ground losses
BLower feed point impedance
CLower radiation resistance
DShorter radials

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A1 wavelength
B1/4 wavelength
C3/4 wavelength
D1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be fed with open wire line
BThey present low impedance on all design frequencies
CThey must be used with an antenna tuner
DThey have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1