US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	12 meters
C	17 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	Under no circumstances
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	100 percent copy

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	Excessive background noise
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
B	The solar panel must have a charge controller
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	An analog mixer
C	A digital mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	2F1-F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By deploying a capacitance hat

Figure G7-1