US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	No US stations should call
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Send a NAK code
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
C	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reluctance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Analog
C	Digital
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier gain
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	All these choices are correct
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Varicode

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	4:1
C	1:4
D	2:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside to the loop

Figure G7-1