US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Electrical safety of the station

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The control operator
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When under automatic control
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	All these choices are correct
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	CW

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	60 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Transformers and transducers
C	All these choices are correct
D	Diodes

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	A digital mixer
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier noise figure

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation