US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Carrier suppression
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	100 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	3.3 henries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	50 MHz
C	40 GHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	Only one diode is required
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class C
D	Class A

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency conversion

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Odd-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Even-order

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth