US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	All HF bands
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Single sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	All these choices are correct
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Minimum SWR on the antenna

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Distorted speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Susceptance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	24 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Reverse biased
C	Forward biased
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	All these choices are correct
D	FM

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:2
C	1:4
D	4:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials upward

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Gain increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance

Figure G7-1