US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	180 days
C	365 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Anywhere in the band
C	No part
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Radio wave propagation

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Impedance
C	Received signal strength
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	20.6 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	10.5 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
D	An analog mixer

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	All these choices are correct
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Detection
C	Intermodulation
D	Rolloff

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1