US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	We have worked before
D	Send slower

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Send an email to the system control operator
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	15 hours to several days
D	28 days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	Signals have a fluttering sound
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Neper frequency
B	Notch frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Cutoff frequency

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Amplitude compressed AM

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	450 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	50 ohms

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	84 feet
C	132 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front-to-back ratio decreases
C	Gain increases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Very low
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Approximately 50 ohms

Figure G7-1