US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	All these choices are correct
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	All these choices are correct
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Change frequency
D	Send slower

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-45
B	Gateway
C	Printer/Server
D	Terminal Node Controller

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	1 to 2 hours
D	28 days

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The ionospheric region involved is unstable

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
C	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	Type N

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	FM
C	AM
D	SSB

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Even-order
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground