US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 2
C	Region 1
D	Region 3

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Increase your power
C	Send slower
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Send a NAK code
D	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is improved

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path
D	Scatter

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A field strength meter
C	A wavemeter
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A Pi-network
C	A length of transmission line
D	A transformer

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class C

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Insertion loss
C	Rolloff
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	3F1-F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio decreases
B	Gain increases
C	Beamwidth increases
D	Resonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground