US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its frequency
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its power density

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical safety of the station
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	RF exposure limits of the human body
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are not permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must be for other licensed amateurs
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent excessive drive
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	RF interference
C	Standing wave ratio
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Farad
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	6 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
B	A low noise figure VHF connector
C	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
D	A nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	Less than 50%
C	50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	On and off
B	High and low
C	Dot and dash
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground