US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
B	All these choices are correct
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 2
C	Region 4
D	Region 1

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Sending without error
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Z
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	530 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	1,000 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	40 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Insertion loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Notch depth

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Even-order
C	Intercept point
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	FT8
B	MSK144
C	AMTOR
D	MFSK32

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	450 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be used with an antenna tuner
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1