US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	30 days
C	365 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say your call sign once
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	A vertically polarized antenna
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	All these choices are correct
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	2.00
C	0.707
D	1.00

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Displacement current coupling
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	40 GHz
D	50 MHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class B
C	Class A
D	Class AB

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	Zero

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Closer element spacing
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1