US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	All these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	All these choices are correct
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Channels 1 through 4
C	Channels 42 through 45
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	100 percent copy

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is divided by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is multiplied by 4

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	High voltage
C	Rapid recharge
D	Long life

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	Digital
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Insertion loss
C	Rolloff
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Intermediate interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Viterbi
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Very high
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Approximately 50 ohms