US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	17 meters
C	160 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General and Technician
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	A special hardware modem
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	14 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Chordal hop
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A length of transmission line
C	A Pi-network
D	A transformer

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	3.0 microfarads
D	300 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Its reactance increases
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	At the Zener voltage
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	Diodes
D	All these choices are correct

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The number of stages in the counter
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	180 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	5F1-3F2
C	2F1-F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna