US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable bandwidth limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	No part
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	All these choices are correct
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	KN
D	SK

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	USB
C	LSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To increase overall efficiency
C	To prevent excessive drive
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and voltage
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The product of current and reactance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	5000 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All these choices are correct
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Trailer
D	Directory

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5:1
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	42 feet
C	84 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground