US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	30 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single phase modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	All these choices are correct
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	CW
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Faster response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	2.4 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Screen grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	BNC
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Image and harmonic
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Upper and lower half-power

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency transformation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency modulation
D	Frequency conversion

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Intercept point
D	Even-order

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:2
D	1:4

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1