US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	At the closest power pole ground electrode
B	In series with each ground lead
C	Where the feed lines enter the building
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	All these choices are correct
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must be for other licensed amateurs
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass inductor
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Excessive background noise
C	Distorted speech
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its conductivity
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	1:4

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Shorter radials
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To prevent out-of-band operation

Figure G7-1