US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A US operator/primary station license
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	CW

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	1 to 2 hours
C	8 minutes
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The F1 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A field strength meter
D	A sidetone monitor

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	173 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	Forward biased
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	Less than 50%
C	50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	FT8
B	MFSK32
C	AMTOR
D	MSK144

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance