US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	All these choices are correct
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It provides more power output
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan
B	All these choices are correct
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	15 hours to several days
D	14 days

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path
C	Faraday rotation
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A length of transmission line
C	A Pi-network
D	A transformer

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	34 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual inductance
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressor grid
B	Control grid
C	Screen grid
D	Trigger electrode

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The ratio
C	The arithmetic product
D	The average

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MFSK32
C	MSK144
D	FT8

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:4
D	1:2

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground