US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	All these choices are correct
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan
B	All these choices are correct
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	Closing station now
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK code
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the maximum point
C	Only at the minimum point
D	At the summer solstice

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path
C	Faraday rotation
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	346 volts
C	245 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Forward biased
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	Input amplifier gain
C	All these choices are correct
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Odd-order
C	Even-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	High and low
C	Dot and dash
D	On and off

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground