US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	10 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Less prone to overload

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Distorted speech
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Ohm
D	Siemens

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	AMTOR
C	MFSK32
D	FT8

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1