US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its duty cycle
C	Its frequency
D	Its power density

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	Closing station now
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To prevent transient overmodulation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Shunt
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Bypass
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reluctance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	245 volts
C	692 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	5.9 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Diodes
B	All these choices are correct
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A digital mixer
C	An analog mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	180 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	MSK144
C	FT8
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 100 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground