US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	All these choices are correct
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	All these choices are correct
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Digital

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Q
D	Return loss

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Odd-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Packet was received without error
D	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted V
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted L

Figure G7-1