US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All these choices are correct
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The ITU
C	The control operator
D	The FCC

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under no circumstances except for emergencies

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	14 days
D	28 days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of temperature inversions
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Transmitter
D	Receiver

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	It becomes capacitive

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Ultimate rejection
B	Notch depth
C	Insertion loss
D	Rolloff

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Ohms per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To prevent out-of-band operation