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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

SelectAnswer
APerform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
BPerform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
CUse an FCC-approved band-pass filter
DContact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

SelectAnswer
AIn series with each ground lead
BWhere the feed lines enter the building
CAt the closest power pole ground electrode
DOn the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
BAmateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
CAmateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
DAmateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

SelectAnswer
AThey are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
BOnly “Q” signals are permitted
CThey may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
DThey are not permitted

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1500 watts PEP
B10 watts RMS
CERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
DERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
A180 days
B30 days
CFor as long as your current license is valid
D365 days

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

SelectAnswer
AWhen under automatic control
BWhen messages are not encrypted
CUnder no circumstances
DWhen messages are encrypted

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
BVery high-fidelity voice modulation
CLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
DLess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

SelectAnswer
AOnly a RACES net control operator
BOnly a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
CA person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
DAny control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
BThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
CAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
DThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

SelectAnswer
AA map that shows accurate land masses
BA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
CA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
DA map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

SelectAnswer
AA low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
BA digital protocol used with Winlink
CA radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
DA DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
BThe short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
CThe short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
DThe solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

SelectAnswer
APropagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
BPropagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
CDouble-hop propagation along the path is more common
DHF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

SelectAnswer
ABecause of temperature inversions
BBecause it is the highest
CBecause of the Doppler effect
DBecause it is the densest

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AHighest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
BDesired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
CMinimum SWR on the antenna
DMinimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA field strength meter
BA sidetone monitor
CA wavemeter
DAn oscilloscope

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AUsing a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
BNot using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
CArcing at a poor electrical connection
DLack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
C14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AThe battery charging system
BThe fuel delivery system
CAll these choices are correct
DThe control computers

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

SelectAnswer
AOhm
BFarad
CSiemens
DAmpere

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A3200 watts
B400 watts
C0.5 watts
D200 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

SelectAnswer
ACapacitive coupling
BDisplacement current coupling
CMutual capacitance
DMutual inductance

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
BThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
CThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
DThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

SelectAnswer
AMulti-Mode Integrated Circuit
BMetal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
CMode Modulated Integrated Circuit
DMonolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 7
BSymbol 1
CSymbol 11
DSymbol 2

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATo cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
BTo limit the modulation index
CTo eliminate self-oscillations
DTo keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
APure sine wave output
BRelatively high-power output
CVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
DExtremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

SelectAnswer
AThe sum of antenna gains minus system losses
BThe sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
CThe difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
DThe financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
BTo aid in tuning your transmitter
CSome modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
DTo prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

SelectAnswer
AOvermodulation
BBackscatter propagation
CLong path propagation
DInsufficient modulation

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

SelectAnswer
A450 ohms
B75 ohms
C50 ohms
D100 ohms

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces only vertically polarized radiation
BIt must be longer than 1 wavelength
CIt is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
DStation equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
ARelative length depends on the frequency of operation
BThey are all the same length
CThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
DThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

SelectAnswer
AVery low
BApproximately 50 ohms
CApproximately 300 ohms
DVery high

Figure G7-1