US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	A US operator/primary station license
D	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When under automatic control
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A digital protocol used with Winlink
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Faster response
B	Less prone to overload
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	12 dB
C	6 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The control computers
B	The battery charging system
C	All these choices are correct
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave
B	Synchronous
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Mark and space
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Coil the radials
D	Slope the radials downward

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
D	Polarization diversity