US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
B	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
C	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
D	Another name for the American sunspot number

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Greater precision
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	100 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual capacitance
B	Mutual inductance
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Suppressor grid
C	Control grid
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	100%

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	All these choices are correct
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency drift
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Phase inversion
C	Synthesizing
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Entire file received correctly
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Packet was received without error
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1