US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	General and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Technician only

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Anywhere in the band
C	Channels 42 through 45
D	No part

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am ready to receive
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	USB
D	DSB

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Chordal hop
C	Faraday rotation
D	Scatter

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	“Picket fencing”
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	120 volts
B	360 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	The connection is dropped
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Very high
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very low