US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It cools body tissue
B	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It heats body tissue

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	1500 watts
C	10 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Decrease power and continue to transmit
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	All these choices are correct
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Impedance of coaxial cable
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Carrier suppression
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To increase the “Q” of the antenna

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	B
C	X
D	Z

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To keep the carrier on frequency

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Frequency drift
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Synthesizing
C	Phase inversion
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Directory
C	Preamble
D	Header

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1