US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	180 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	No US stations should call
C	Closing station now
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	HF communications over the path are enhanced
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Impedance of coaxial cable

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Received signal strength
C	Transmitter power output
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Phase inversion
C	Heterodyning
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Packet was received without error
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1