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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AIts power density
BIts duty cycle
CAll these choices are correct
DIts frequency

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

SelectAnswer
ARF exposure limits of the human body
BAcceptable bandwidth limits
CAcceptable modulation limits
DElectrical safety of the station

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B160 meters
C12 meters
D30 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BTransmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
CObservation of propagation and reception
DAutomatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
BERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C1500 watts PEP
D10 watts RMS

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

SelectAnswer
AOn any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
BOnly the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
COnly on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
DOn any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

SelectAnswer
AAnywhere in the band
BNo part
CChannels 1 through 4
DChannels 42 through 45

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ASuppressed sideband
BUpper sideband
CDouble sideband
DLower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

SelectAnswer
AOnly a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
BOnly a RACES net control operator
CAny control operator when normal communication systems are operational
DA person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

SelectAnswer
ARepeat everything twice
BIncrease your power
CSend slower
DChange frequency

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

SelectAnswer
ARepeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
BSign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
CSay “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
DTransmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

SelectAnswer
AA DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
BA low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
CA digital protocol used with Winlink
DA radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

SelectAnswer
ALower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
BHigher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
CA zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
DA zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

SelectAnswer
AThe Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
BLowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
CLowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
DThe Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe long path azimuth of a distant station
BThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
DThe short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum SWR on the antenna
BMinimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
CHighest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
DDesired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

SelectAnswer
AFaster response
BHigher precision
CLess prone to overload
DBetter for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

SelectAnswer
AIt ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
BIt prevents signal overload
CIt prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
DIt ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitter power output
BImpedance
CReceived signal strength
DCarrier suppression

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
AEfficiency of the electrically short antenna
BThe wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
CFCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

SelectAnswer
AThe product of current and reactance
BThe ratio of voltage to current
CThe product of current and voltage
DThe ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A2.4 watts
B6 watts
C24 watts
D60 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
BAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
CThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
DThe input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

SelectAnswer
ASaturation and cutoff
BEnhancement and depletion modes
CPeak and valley current points
DThe active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ARCA Phono
BPL-259
CType N
DBNC

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

SelectAnswer
AA steady DC voltage
BA series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
CA series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
DA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
AAM
BFM
CAll these choices are correct
DSSB

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

SelectAnswer
AInput amplifier noise figure
BAll these choices are correct
CDemodulator stage bandwidth
DInput amplifier gain

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

SelectAnswer
AVestigial sideband
BAmplitude compressed AM
C8-tone frequency shift keying
D8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency inversion
BPhase inversion
CHeterodyning
DSynthesizing

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

SelectAnswer
ADirectory
BPreamble
CHeader
DTrailer

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

SelectAnswer
AFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
BUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
COperating an antenna at its resonant frequency
DA difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A42 feet
B84 feet
C263 feet
D132 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt is useful for matching multiband antennas
BIt does not require any inductors or capacitors
CAll these choices are correct
DIt does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
CA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
DA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground