US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its duty cycle
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	365 days
C	30 days
D	180 days

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	Anywhere in the band
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	No part

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	All these choices are correct
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Check the A-index
C	All these choices are correct
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	360 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Forward biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase convolution
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	16 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Varicode
C	Volumetric
D	Binary

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	42 feet
C	132 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Sloper
C	Inverted L
D	Inverted V

Figure G7-1