US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 16

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	180 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	20.6 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	12.2 percent

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High voltage
B	Rapid recharge
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Reverse biased
C	Forward biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Transformers and transducers
C	All these choices are correct
D	Diodes

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase convolution

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Even-order
C	Intercept point
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Long path propagation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat