US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Decrease power and continue to transmit
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	AR
C	BK
D	KN

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
B	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
C	A digital protocol used with Winlink
D	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	A slightly delayed echo might be heard

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	Zero
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Image response

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	5:1
C	1:5
D	1:2

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Opposite the feed point
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo

Figure G7-1