Anonymous User

Hamboozler

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AIts frequency
BIts power density
CAll these choices are correct
DIts duty cycle

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
BTo shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
CTo shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
DTo ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

SelectAnswer
AThe entire band
B28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AOccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
BEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
CUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
DAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AIf you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
BYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
CYou must keep a record of all third-party traffic
DYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
A30 days
B365 days
C180 days
DFor as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

SelectAnswer
AOn any band segment where digital operation is permitted
BAnywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
CAnywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
DOnly in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

SelectAnswer
ASay “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
BSay “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
CSay “Breaker Breaker”
DSay your call sign once

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly SSTV contacts
BOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
COnly digital contacts
DOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

SelectAnswer
AWe have worked before
BI have received and understood
CSend slower
DWe have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
A180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
BToward the north
CToward the rising sun
DAlong the gray line

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

SelectAnswer
ABetween 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
BIn the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
CAt the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
DAt the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AAt any point
BAt the summer solstice
COnly at the maximum point
DOnly at the minimum point

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

SelectAnswer
ASend a series of dots and listen for echoes
BCheck the A-index
CUse a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
DAll these choices are correct

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
BThe lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
CThe highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
DThe frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic transmit/receive switching
BAutomatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
CTo allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
DComputer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BDesensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
CGeneration of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
DReceived power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

SelectAnswer
AYou receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
BThe SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
CYou receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
DAn item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
D14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
A“Picket fencing”
BFCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
CThe wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
DEfficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BReluctance
CAdmittance
DReactance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

SelectAnswer
A1060 watts
B2120 watts
C1500 watts
D530 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
A24 to 1
B144 to 1
C12 to 1
D3.5 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

SelectAnswer
AScreen grid
BSuppressor grid
CControl grid
DTrigger electrode

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
BThe composition, or “mix,” of materials used
CIts thickness
DIts conductivity

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 7
BSymbol 6
CSymbol 11
DSymbol 1

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
AFM
BAll these choices are correct
CSSB
DAM

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

SelectAnswer
AUsed in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
BUsed in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
CUsed in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
DUsed in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

SelectAnswer
AReceiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
BThe opposite of fade margin
CTransmit power minus receiver sensitivity
DThe difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AHigher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
BBandwidth is half the symbol rate
CLower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
DSymbol rate and bandwidth are not related

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

SelectAnswer
APackets will be routed incorrectly
BEncoding reverts to the default character set
CThe connection is dropped
DThe checksum overflows

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
BThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
CThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
DThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

SelectAnswer
AShorter radials
BLower ground losses
CLower radiation resistance
DLower feed point impedance

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
AThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
BThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
CThey are all the same length
DRelative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1