US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	60 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	50 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	All these choices are correct
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	Send slower
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	All of the above
B	A form of Packet Radio
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	15 dB
C	6 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Susceptance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class C

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio
B	The sum and difference
C	The arithmetic product
D	The average

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Binary
C	Viterbi
D	Varicode

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Polarization diversity
D	Harmonic suppression