US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its power density
B	Its duty cycle
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its frequency

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	18 years
C	There is no age limit
D	16 years

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Change frequency
C	Send slower
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	All of the above

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improve ground wave propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	X
C	Y
D	B

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Frequency inversion
C	Synthesizing
D	Phase inversion

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Directory
C	Header
D	Trailer

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying the base loading inductance