US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its frequency
C	Its duty cycle
D	Its power density

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Switch to the opposite sideband
D	Decrease power and continue to transmit

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Repeat everything twice
B	Send slower
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	CW
C	LSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	A sudden drop in the solar flux index

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Faraday rotation
C	Scatter
D	Short-path

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent key clicks on CW
B	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Linearity

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 2 times

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	The battery charging system
C	The control computers
D	All these choices are correct

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	34 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	Tight tolerance
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	50%
C	100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	8 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	1:5
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Shorter radials
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower ground losses
D	Lower feed point impedance

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Sloper
C	Inverted L
D	Inverted V