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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

SelectAnswer
ANotify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
BAll these choices are correct
CPost a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
DPerform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

SelectAnswer
AAWG number 16
BAWG number 12
CAWG number 20
DAWG number 8

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
BAll these choices are correct
CThe frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
DNo more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B1500 watts PEP
C10 watts RMS
DERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

SelectAnswer
AOnly those of the remote station’s country
BThose of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
CThose of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
DOnly those of the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

SelectAnswer
AAnywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
BOn any band segment where digital operation is permitted
CAnywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
DOnly in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

SelectAnswer
ASSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
BSSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
COnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
DOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

SelectAnswer
AIdentify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
BAll these choices are correct
CListen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
DFollow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
BThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
CAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
DThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

SelectAnswer
ATo encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
BTo provide emergency and public safety communications
CTo coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
DTo conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

SelectAnswer
A425 Hz
B170 Hz
C850 Hz
D85 Hz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AAt the summer solstice
BOnly at the maximum point
CAt any point
DOnly at the minimum point

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

SelectAnswer
APath distance and location
BSolar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
CAll these choices are correct
DTime of day and season

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AShort-path
BChordal hop
CScatter
DFaraday rotation

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
BComputer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
CAutomatic transmit/receive switching
DAutomatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitter
BAntenna and feed line
CAll these choices are correct
DReceiver

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
BOverheating of ground straps
CA ground loop
DCorrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

SelectAnswer
A6 dB
B15 dB
C12 dB
D18 dB

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A0.5 VDC
B0.2 VDC
C1.38 VDC
D0.02 VDC

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

SelectAnswer
AAmpere
BSiemens
COhm
DFarad

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

SelectAnswer
A20.6 percent
B10.9 percent
C12.2 percent
D25.9 percent

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

SelectAnswer
A1,000 millihenries
B14.3 millihenries
C7 millihenries
D70 millihenries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

SelectAnswer
ATrigger electrode
BControl grid
CSuppressor grid
DScreen grid

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

SelectAnswer
AA connector designed for serial multiple access signals
BA type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
CA small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
DA type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 11
BSymbol 5
CSymbol 4
DSymbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

SelectAnswer
AClass B
BClass A
CClass AB
DClass C

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
AVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
BPure sine wave output
CRelatively high-power output
DExtremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

SelectAnswer
AVestigial sideband
B8-tone frequency shift keying
CAmplitude compressed AM
D8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
ALower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
BHigher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
CSymbol rate and bandwidth are not related
DBandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient modulation
BOvermodulation
CLong path propagation
DBackscatter propagation

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

SelectAnswer
AHigher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
BHigher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
CHigher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
DTransmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

SelectAnswer
AIt is unaffected by the height above ground
BIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
CIt steadily decreases
DIt steadily increases

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AFront-to-back ratio decreases
BGain increases
CBeamwidth increases
DResonant frequency is lower

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent out-of-band operation
BTo enable multiband operation
CTo provide balanced feed point impedance
DTo notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1