US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	In series with each ground lead
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Single phase modulation
D	Single sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Send slower
C	Increase your power
D	Repeat everything twice

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
B	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
C	Phone signals have high intelligibility
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Higher precision
D	Faster response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	High stability
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Inherently more stable
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	SSB
C	All these choices are correct
D	FM

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower radiation resistance
C	Lower ground losses
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To notch spurious frequencies
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance