US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	RF exposure limits of the human body
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	10 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Single phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Along the gray line
C	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D	Toward the north

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Scatter
C	Short-path
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	70 microfarads
C	0.07 microfarads
D	14.3 microfarads

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermediate interference
B	Quadrature response
C	Mixer interference
D	Image response

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB-SC
B	PSK31
C	WSPR
D	MFSK16

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of elements on the boom
B	The physical length of the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Sloper
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted L