US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	20 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
B	All these choices are correct
C	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The D region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The product of current and voltage

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	400 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Notch depth
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The checksum overflows
B	Encoding reverts to the default character set
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The connection is dropped

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:4
C	2:1
D	4:1

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	They are all the same length
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside to the loop
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	In the plane of the loop