US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	All these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	12 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
D	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	10 watts
C	100 watts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only SSTV contacts
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am quitting for the day
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path
D	Scatter

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	A pronounced dip
D	No change will be observed

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Susceptance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	1060 watts
C	530 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	8
D	6

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	IF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Varicode
C	Binary
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1