US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Federal Communications Commission
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 1 through 4
B	Anywhere in the band
C	No part
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Higher precision
D	Faster response

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The fuel delivery system
C	All these choices are correct
D	The control computers

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	12 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	Type N
C	BNC
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier gain
D	Input amplifier noise figure

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	It is sideband sensitive
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	The connection is dropped

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the antenna element
B	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Polarization diversity
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Harmonic suppression

Figure G7-1