US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	In series with each ground lead
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say your call sign once
D	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Follow the voluntary band plan
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	All these choices are correct
D	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	All these choices are correct
C	Submit a log to the contest sponsor
D	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Higher precision
D	Faster response

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Transmitter power output
C	Impedance
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	2500 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	150 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High discharge current
C	Rapid recharge
D	High voltage

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class B
C	Class C
D	Class AB

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	84 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies