US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	In series with each ground lead
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	No part
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	I have received and understood
C	Send slower
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	All of the above

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Signal strength increased by 3 dB

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Signals have a fluttering sound
B	Phone signals have high intelligibility
C	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases average power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of voltage to current
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High capacitance for given volume

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	All these choices are correct
C	Diodes
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	902 MHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	432 MHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Hemispherical
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Very high
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Approximately 50 ohms