US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	250 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	A US operator/primary station license
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only SSTV contacts
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Shunt
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	14.3 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	7 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To increase efficiency

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	More than 50% but less than 100%
B	Less than 50%
C	50%
D	100%

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	The connection is dropped
B	The checksum overflows
C	Encoding reverts to the default character set
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies