US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Outside the building
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	We have worked before
C	I have received and understood
D	Send slower

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade ground wave propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Reverse biased
C	Forward biased
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
D	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Varicode

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Gain increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

Figure G7-1