US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	30 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	5.9 ohms
B	17 ohms
C	80 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	In the tunnel-effect region
C	Reverse biased
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	Only one diode is required
D	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	5 kHz
D	3 kHz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:2
C	1:4
D	2:1

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies