US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Under no circumstances
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say “Breaker Breaker”
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A special hardware modem
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Chordal hop
D	Short-path

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B	Impedance of coaxial cable
C	Gain of a directional antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Using surge suppressor power outlets
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
C	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A Pi-network
C	All these choices are correct
D	A transformer

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	SSB
C	AM
D	All these choices are correct

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Filter

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Packets will be routed incorrectly
B	The checksum overflows
C	The connection is dropped
D	Encoding reverts to the default character set

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Beamwidth increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point

Figure G7-1