US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	All these choices are correct
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Unground the base of the tower
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 8 times
B	Approximately 1.5 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	A series resistor must be in place
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	45 degrees
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	8 feet
C	33 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Wide bandwidth
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna