US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	All wires
C	Only the hot wires
D	Only the neutral wire

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	For as long as your current license is valid
C	365 days
D	30 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Stop sending
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Send more slowly

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	8 minutes
C	20 to 40 hours
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Bypass inductor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	10.9 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	20.6 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	BNC

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	Filter
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower ground losses
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground