US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	200 feet
C	50 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1500 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	10 watts

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	I have received and understood
C	We have worked before
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	USB
C	SSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	Z
C	X
D	B

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	1.00
C	2.00
D	0.707

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	14.3 microfarads
C	70 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Tight tolerance
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	8
C	16
D	6

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Preamble
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	4:1
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	263 feet
C	84 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization