US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When under automatic control
D	When messages are encrypted

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	No US stations should call
C	Operating full break-in
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	28 days
D	14 days

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Greater precision
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Shunt
B	Series-parallel
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	173 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	30 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Programmable Logic
C	MMIC
D	Analog

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Mixing products are greatly reduced
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
D	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point