US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

Select	Answer
A	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
B	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
C	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D	Microwaves are ionizing radiation

2. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	At the lowest frequency of the channel
B	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
C	At the highest frequency of the channel
D	At the center frequency of the channel

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

Select	Answer
A	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
B	A letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
C	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
D	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

4. - E1C10

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	At least 53 dB below
B	At least 63 dB below
C	At least 73 dB below
D	At least 43 dB below

5. - E1D01

What is the definition of telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
B	Two-way transmissions of data
C	Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
D	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument

6. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Employees of the VE
B	All these choices are correct
C	Friends of the VE
D	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

7. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
B	It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
C	It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D	It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

8. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify regarding satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
B	Which sideband to use
C	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
D	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands

9. - E2B10

What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Select	Answer
A	Tone amplitude
B	Tone frequency
C	Sync frequency
D	Sync amplitude

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

Select	Answer
A	Cable TV channels 41 through 43
B	The 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
C	Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
D	HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Connect
B	Disconnect
C	Unnumbered Information
D	Acknowledgement

12. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
B	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO, while AFSK transmits tones via phone
C	Only direct FSK can be decoded by computer
D	Direct FSK can transmit faster baud rates

13. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
B	A fluttery irregular fading
C	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
D	The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

14. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?

Select	Answer
A	Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
B	Extraordinary waves describe rare long-skip propagation compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
C	Refracted rays and reflected waves
D	Long-path and short-path waves

15. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Waning sunspot numbers
B	An extreme geomagnetic storm
C	Moderate solar wind
D	Very low solar activity

16. - E4A05

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
B	It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
C	It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
D	It amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
B	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
C	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
D	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable

18. - E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
B	Reduced drift
C	Improved receiver noise figure
D	Fewer components in the receiver

19. - E4D06

What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier desensitization
B	Neutralization
C	Intermodulation
D	Adjacent channel interference

20. - E4E06

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
C	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
D	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

21. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
B	Internal voltages increase
C	Fewer components are needed for the same performance
D	Parasitic effects are minimized

22. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
B	The imaginary part of admittance
C	The magnetic impedance of a circuit
D	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer

23. - E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 7
B	Point 1
C	Point 8
D	Point 3

24. - E5D13

How many watts are consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	70.7 watts
B	100 watts
C	200 watts
D	141.4 watts

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

Select	Answer
A	In microwave circuits
B	In very low-frequency RF circuits
C	In high-power audio circuits
D	In high-current rectifier circuits

26. - E6B03

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse bias
B	Zero bias
C	Forward bias
D	Inductive bias

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	4
C	5
D	2

28. - E6D11

Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered iron
B	Ceramic
C	Brass
D	Ferrite

29. - E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Higher noise figures
B	Lower transconductance
C	Higher electron mobility
D	Lower junction voltage drop

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Cadmium Sulfide
C	Selenium
D	Copper oxide

31. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic 1 at its output if any or all inputs are logic 1
B	It produces logic 1 at its output if all inputs are logic 0
C	It only produces logic 0 at its output when all inputs are logic 1
D	It produces logic 0 at its output if all inputs are logic 1

32. - E7B16

What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of spurious signals
B	Low efficiency
C	All these choices are correct
D	Creation of parasitic oscillations

33. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a low-pass filter
B	It is a high-pass filter
C	It is a notch filter
D	It is a band-pass filter

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
B	Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
C	All these choices are correct
D	Provide a minimum load on the supply

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

Select	Answer
A	A circuit for detecting FM signals
B	An FM generator circuit
C	A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D	An automatic band-switching circuit

36. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	10 bits
B	8 bits
C	6 bits
D	4 bits

37. - E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
B	The frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero
C	The gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency
D	The frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one

38. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Negative feedback and balanced feedback
B	Pierce and Zener
C	Colpitts and Hartley
D	Armstrong and deForest

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 1
B	100 to 1
C	2.5 to 1
D	25 to 1

40. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	2000
B	6000
C	3
D	1/3

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	104 Hz
B	26 Hz
C	13 Hz
D	52 Hz

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
B	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
C	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
D	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Soil conductivity
B	Take-off angle
C	The standing wave ratio
D	Distance from the transmitter

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	14 dB
C	12 dB
D	24 dB

45. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Select	Answer
A	A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
C	Cardioid
D	Omni-directional

46. - E9D06

What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is increased
B	It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
C	It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
D	It is decreased

47. - E9E11

What is the primary purpose of phasing lines when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
B	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
D	It creates a low-angle radiation pattern

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 meters
B	10.6 meters
C	7.0 meters
D	13.3 meters

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance axis
B	The reactance axis
C	The voltage axis
D	The current axis

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

Select	Answer
A	To increase receiver sensitivity
B	To narrow the receiver bandwidth
C	To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
D	To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines

Figure E5-1

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3