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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
ASignal Amplification Rating
BSynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
CThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
DThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

2. - E1A01

Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A18.100 MHz
B18.110 MHz
C18.107 MHz
D18.068 MHz

3. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

SelectAnswer
AYou must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
BYou must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
CYou must submit engineering drawings to the FAA
DYou may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules

4. - E1C14

How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

SelectAnswer
AOperators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
BOperations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
COperators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 km of PLC systems using those frequencies
DOperators must not operate until approval is received

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AA photocopy of the station license
BA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
CAll these choices are correct
DA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator

6. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AThe FCC
BEach administering VE
CThe VEC coordinating the session
DThe VE session manager

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25
CWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
DWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

8. - E2A12

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
ATo delay download of telemetry between satellites
BTo store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
CTo relay messages between satellites
DTo upload operational software for the transponder

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
BTo identify the call sign of the station transmitting
CTo provide vertical synchronization
DTo identify the SSTV mode being used

10. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ABecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
BAll these choices are correct
CTo separate the calling stations from the DX station
DTo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

SelectAnswer
AAcknowledgement
BConnect
CDisconnect
DUnnumbered Information

12. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AMFSK16
B170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
CPSK31
D300-baud packet

13. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThe F1 layer
BThe F2 layer
CThe D layer
DThe E layer

14. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
AOnly 30 meters to 10 meters
B6 meters to 2 meters
COnly 160 meters to 40 meters
D160 meters to 10 meters

15. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
ABy approximately twice the distance
BBy approximately 15 percent of the distance
CBy approximately four times the distance
DBy approximately 50 percent of the distance

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
BConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
CLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
DLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
BShort circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
C50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
DShort circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

18. - E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
AImproved receiver noise figure
BFewer components in the receiver
CReduced drift
DEasier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses

19. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

SelectAnswer
AWhen the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
BWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
CWhen the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
DWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

20. - E4E05

How can radio frequency interference from an AC motor be suppressed?

SelectAnswer
ABy installing a high-pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
BBy installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
CBy installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
DBy using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A44.72 MHz
B3.56 MHz
C1.78 MHz
D22.36 MHz

22. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe sign is reversed
BIt is shifted by 90 degrees
CIt is unchanged
DIt becomes the reciprocal

23. - E5C10

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 4
BPoint 6
CPoint 2
DPoint 5

24. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A1.0
B0.5
C0.866
D0.707

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

SelectAnswer
AIn high-current rectifier circuits
BIn very low-frequency RF circuits
CIn microwave circuits
DIn high-power audio circuits

26. - E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon-controlled rectifier
BVaractor diode
CZener diode
DTunnel diode

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

SelectAnswer
A5
B2
C4
D6

28. - E6D09

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite beads
BSteel-core toroids
CElectrolytic capacitors
DButterworth filters

29. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

SelectAnswer
A2 dB
B44 dBm
C-10 dB
D-20 dBm

30. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AThe open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
BThe output RF power divided by the input DC power
CCost per kilowatt-hour generated
DThe relative fraction of light that is converted to current

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

SelectAnswer
AAn AND gate
BA flip-flop
CAn OR gate
DA bipolar amplifier

32. - E7B08

How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

SelectAnswer
ABy increasing the driving power
BBy feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
CBy reducing the driving power
DBy feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

33. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
BThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
CThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

34. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

SelectAnswer
AIt uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
BThe high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
CIt uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle
DThe inverter design does not require any output filtering

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
BTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
CTo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
DTo produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

36. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

SelectAnswer
ASample clock phase noise
BSample width in bits
CProcessor latency
DSample rate

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A-2.3 volts
B2.3 volts
C0.23 volts
D-0.23 volts

38. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

SelectAnswer
ADigital conversion noise
BBroadband noise
CNyquist limit noise
DSpurious signals at discrete frequencies

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

SelectAnswer
AAn abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
BA small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
CAn error caused by irregular quantization step size
DA method of decimation by randomly skipping samples

40. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

SelectAnswer
AEME
BHigh-speed digital modes
COFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
DExtremely low-power contacts

41. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

SelectAnswer
ABy transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
BBy varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
CBy transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
DBy the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
ALow-pass filters at the transmitter output
BHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
CReduce keying waveform rise and fall times
DIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times

43. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
A3.85 dB
B8.15 dB
C6.0 dB
D2.79 dB

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A24 dB
B18 dB
C12 dB
D14 dB

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole configured to provide forward gain
BA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
CA type of ground-plane antenna
DA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe front-to-back ratio increases
BThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
CThe SWR is reduced
DThe front-to-back ratio decreases

47. - E9E05

How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

SelectAnswer
AThe driven element reactance must be inductive
BThe driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
CThe driven element reactance must be capacitive
DThe driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A7.0 meters
B8.5 meters
C10.6 meters
D13.3 meters

49. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

SelectAnswer
AIn fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
BIn fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
CIn fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
DIn fractions of antenna electrical frequency

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
BA stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
CA small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
DA four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant

Figure E5-1

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1