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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ALocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
BHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
CIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
DBlood clotting from the intense magnetic field

2. - E1A01

Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A18.068 MHz
B18.110 MHz
C18.100 MHz
D18.107 MHz

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
BAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
CA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
DA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

4. - E1C13

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter or 2200 meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AOperators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
BA special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
COperators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
DAn environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

SelectAnswer
AAny amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
BOnly those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
DOnly those of Amateur Extra Class operators

6. - E1E02

Who does Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S. amateur license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AThe ARRL
BThe VECs
CThe FCC
DThe VEs

7. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

SelectAnswer
AOnly on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
BOnly on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
COnly on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
DOnly on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

8. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

SelectAnswer
AFrom north to south
BFrom west to east
CFrom south to north
DFrom east to west

9. - E2B12

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

SelectAnswer
AElapsed time
BSpecific tone frequencies
CSpecific tone amplitudes
DA two-tone signal

10. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

SelectAnswer
ATo run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
BTo allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
CTo relay calls to and from a DX station
DTo handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

11. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

SelectAnswer
AUse of special digital modes
BAll these choices are correct
CShort transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

12. - E2E01

Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
ASpread spectrum
BFSK
CDTMF tones modulating an FM signal
DPulse modulation

13. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
A10 MHz - 14 MHz
B28 MHz - 148 MHz
C1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
D220 MHz - 450 MHz

14. - E3B07

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThey are bent toward the magnetic poles
BThey become phase locked
CThey become elliptically polarized
DThey become depolarized

15. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

SelectAnswer
ADecreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
BHigher levels of solar UV radiation
CAn increase in the critical frequency
DIncreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

SelectAnswer
ACalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
BAll signals will have a DC offset
CA false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed
DExcessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal

17. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
AInput attenuator accuracy
BTime base accuracy
CDecade divider accuracy
DTemperature coefficient of the logic

18. - E4C05

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
BThe minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
CThe galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
DThe noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

19. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

SelectAnswer
AWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
BWhen the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
CWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
DWhen the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

20. - E4E11

What could cause local AM broadcast band signals to combine to generate spurious signals in the MF or HF bands?

SelectAnswer
AOne or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal
BYour station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
CYou are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
DNearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals

21. - E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?

SelectAnswer
ACapacitance
BConductance
CResonance
DResistance

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

SelectAnswer
ARectangular coordinates
BElliptical coordinates
CMaidenhead grid
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D03

What is microstrip?

SelectAnswer
APrecision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
BMiniature coax used for low power applications
CShort lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
DLightweight transmission line made of common zip cord

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

SelectAnswer
AIn high-power audio circuits
BIn microwave circuits
CIn very low-frequency RF circuits
DIn high-current rectifier circuits

26. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
AA constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
BA negative resistance region
CAn internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
DA constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current

27. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

SelectAnswer
ALogic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
BProprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
CLow-power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
DLogic devices that utilize ternary math

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

SelectAnswer
AMagnetizing current
BStabilizing current
CExcitation current
DDirect current

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
AAxial lead
BSurface mount
CTO-220
DRadial lead

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ACopper oxide
BCadmium Sulfide
CSelenium
DSilicon

31. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
BIt produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
CIt decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
DIt produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse

32. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
AOutput load resistor
BSelf bias
CEmitter bypass
DFixed bias

33. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

SelectAnswer
AIt cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
BIt introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
CReactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
DIt introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

34. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

SelectAnswer
AA shunt current source
BA shunt regulator
CA constant current source
DA series regulator

35. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy driving a product detector with a DSB signal
BBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
CBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
DBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer

36. - E7F12

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

SelectAnswer
AFIR filters can respond faster to impulses
BAll these choices are correct
CFIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
DFIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements

37. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

SelectAnswer
ARestrict gain but increase Q
BRestrict both gain and Q
CIncrease both gain and Q
DRestrict Q but increase gain

38. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

SelectAnswer
AColpitts and Hartley
BPierce and Zener
CNegative feedback and balanced feedback
DArmstrong and deForest

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A8
B256
C8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
D256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier

40. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AA digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
BA frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
CA bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
DA digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ABaud is twice the symbol rate
BSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
CBaud is only used for RTTY
DThey are the same

42. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

SelectAnswer
AA binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
BIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
DThe frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station

43. - E9A07

What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A252 watts
B63.2 watts
C159 watts
D632 watts

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A30 degrees
B25 degrees
C75 degrees
D50 degrees

45. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A300 ohms
B450 ohms
C72 ohms
D50 ohms

46. - E9D10

What happens to feed-point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna when operated below its resonant frequency?

SelectAnswer
AThe radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
BThe radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
CThe radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
DThe radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

47. - E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BHairpin match
CDouble-bazooka match
DGamma match

48. - E9F02

Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AThe termination impedance
BThe center conductor resistivity
CDielectric materials used in the line
DThe line length

49. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna radiation pattern
BImpedance along transmission lines
CRadiation resistance
DRadio propagation

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
ALow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
BAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
CAll these choices are correct
DThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-1