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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

SelectAnswer
A300 kHz to 3 MHz
B3 to 30 MHz
C300 to 3000 MHz
D30 to 300 MHz

2. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

SelectAnswer
AOnly General Class or higher amateur licenses
BAny FCC-issued amateur license
CAn unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
DAny amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

3. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
AAll amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
BMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
CSpecific local government channels
DSpecific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

4. - E1C13

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter or 2200 meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AOperators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
BAn environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
CA special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
DOperators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A70 cm and 33 cm
B70 cm only
C70 cm and 13 cm
D33 cm and 13 cm

6. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

SelectAnswer
AEach General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
BThe procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
CThe amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
DThe prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

7. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

SelectAnswer
A420 MHz - 430 MHz
B53 MHz - 54 MHz
C222 MHz - 223 MHz
D440 MHz - 450 MHz

8. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode? as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
AThe satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
BThe satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
CWhether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
DWhether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

SelectAnswer
ATo identify the call sign of the station transmitting
BTo lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
CTo identify the SSTV mode being used
DTo provide vertical synchronization

10. - E2C12

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

SelectAnswer
ADiscovery and link establishment protocols
BCustom code plugs for the local trunking systems
CForward error correction and Viterbi codes
DActing as store-and-forward digipeaters

11. - E2D10

How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

SelectAnswer
AAn APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
BAPRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
CAn APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
DAll these choices are correct

12. - E2E01

Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APulse modulation
BDTMF tones modulating an FM signal
CSpread spectrum
DFSK

13. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThe F2 layer
BThe F1 layer
CThe D layer
DThe E layer

14. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
ANoon
BMorning
CAfternoon or early evening
DLate at night

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass A
BClass M
CClass B
DClass X

16. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
BAll these choices are correct
CAntenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
DAntenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

17. - E4B08

Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
BThe resonant frequency of the circuit
CThe frequency shift
DThe inductance to capacitance ratio

18. - E4C15

What is reciprocal mixing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
BTwo digital signals combining from alternate time slots
CLocal oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
DIn-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity

19. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

SelectAnswer
AA pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
BSignals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
CA pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
DThe receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

20. - E4E02

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced with a digital signal processing noise filter?

SelectAnswer
APower line noise
BIgnition noise
CBroadband white noise
DAll these choices are correct

21. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
BReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
CReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
DReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

22. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

SelectAnswer
AElliptical coordinates
BRectangular coordinates
CMaidenhead grid
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A50 watts
B80 watts
C400 watts
D2000 watts

25. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers
BAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
CAny FET without a channel
DAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

26. - E6B03

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

SelectAnswer
AZero bias
BForward bias
CInductive bias
DReverse bias

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

SelectAnswer
A5
B4
C2
D6

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

SelectAnswer
ADirect current
BStabilizing current
CMagnetizing current
DExcitation current

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
ARadial lead
BAxial lead
CSurface mount
DTO-220

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light
BThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
CThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
DThe conversion of light to electrical energy

31. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output only when all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output only when all inputs are logic 0
CIt produces logic 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output only when all inputs are logic 1

32. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ALinear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
BThe power transistor is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
CSwitching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
DSwitching amplifiers use push-pull circuits

33. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

SelectAnswer
AGradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
BExtremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
CGradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
DExtremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

34. - E7D02

What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
BThe controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
CIt is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
DIt gives a ramp voltage at its output

35. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AA pre-emphasis network
BA heterodyne suppressor
CA heterodyne enhancer
DA de-emphasis network

36. - E7F07

What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

SelectAnswer
AConverting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
BConverting digital signals to analog form
CConverting analog signals to digital form
DConverting 8-bit data to 16-bit data

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A2.3 volts
B0.23 volts
C-0.23 volts
D-2.3 volts

38. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
APhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
BComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
CWide-band AF and RF power amplification
DFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
A100 to 1
B2.5 to 1
C25 to 1
D1 to 1

40. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AA bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
BA frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
CA digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
DA digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
AIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
BSpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
CSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
DIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
ADirect sequence
BBinary phase-shift keying
CPhase compandored spread spectrum
DFrequency hopping

43. - E9A06

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

SelectAnswer
A126 watts
B300 watts
C2000 watts
D317 watts

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A45 degrees
B7.5 degrees
C75 degrees
D25 degrees

45. - E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

SelectAnswer
AThe lobes align more in the direction of the wire
BThe lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
CThe vertical angle increases
DThe front-to-back ratio decreases

46. - E9D06

What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt is decreased
BIt is increased
CIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
DIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe gamma match
BThe delta match
CThe epsilon match
DThe stub match

48. - E9F04

What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the output impedance of the generator
BVery low impedance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
DVery high impedance

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage circles and current arcs
BResistance lines and reactance chords
CResistance circles and reactance arcs
DVoltage lines and current chords

50. - E9H03

What is Receiving Directivity Factor (RDF)?

SelectAnswer
AForward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
BForward gain compared to average gain over the entire hemisphere
CRelative directivity compared to isotropic
DRelative directivity compared to a dipole

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-2