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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

SelectAnswer
AUranium Hexafluoride
BZinc oxide
CMica
DBeryllium Oxide

2. - E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A100 watts PEP
B1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
C50 watts PEP
D5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)

3. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
AMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
BSpecific local government channels
CSpecific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
DAll amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator

4. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
BUnder local control there is no control operator
CUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
DUnder automatic control there is no control operator

5. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A6 meters and 2 meters
B2 meters and 1.25 meters
C6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
D2 meters

6. - E1E02

Who does Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S. amateur license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AThe ARRL
BThe FCC
CThe VECs
DThe VEs

7. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
BIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
CThe equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
DIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government

8. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AFM and CW
BAll these choices are correct
CSSB and SSTV
DPSK and packet

9. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

SelectAnswer
AHue
BSpectral intensity
CChroma
DLuminance

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

SelectAnswer
AContacts using tactical call signs
BContacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
CSpecial event contacts between stations in the U.S.
DRepeater contacts between U.S. club members

11. - E2D05

What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

SelectAnswer
AEasily copied by ear if necessary
BThe ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
CPermits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
DUses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

12. - E2E12

How do ALE stations establish contact?

SelectAnswer
AALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
BALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
CALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
DALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter

13. - E3A12

What is the cause of auroral activity?

SelectAnswer
AMeteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
BThe interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
CAn extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions
DThe interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A6 meters
B10 meters
C80 meters
D20 meters

15. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels
BUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
CThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
DThe ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number

16. - E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

SelectAnswer
AQ of the circuit
BSampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
CAmount of memory
DAll these choices are correct

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
BThe transmitter is not properly neutralized
CThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
DThere is more power going into the antenna

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-148 dBm
B-164 dBm
C-174 dBm
D-155 dBm

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

SelectAnswer
AOdd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
BOdd-order products overload the IF filters
COdd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band
DOdd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

SelectAnswer
AUse of braided shielding material
BCommon-mode currents on the shield and conductors
CLow inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
DTying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield

21. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

SelectAnswer
A15.7 kHz
B31.4 kHz
C218.3 kHz
D436.6 kHz

22. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
BVoltage and current are in phase
CVoltage leads current by 90 degrees
DCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
AMaidenhead grid
BFaraday grid
CPolar coordinates
DElliptical coordinates

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A80 watts
B400 watts
C50 watts
D2000 watts

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET has higher input impedance
BThey are both low impedance
CThey are both high impedance
DAn FET has lower input impedance

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AExcessive junction temperature
BCharge carrier depletion
CInsufficient forward voltage
DExcessive inverse voltage

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A2
B3
C4
D1

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe skin effect
BInductive kickback
CNon-linear core hysteresis
DInter-turn capacitance

29. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

SelectAnswer
A44 dBm
B-10 dB
C-20 dBm
D2 dB

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
BThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
CThe conversion of light to electrical energy
DThe tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0
CIt produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1

32. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATune the stage for maximum SWR
BTune both the input and output for maximum power
CInstall parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
DUse a phase inverter in the output filter

33. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

SelectAnswer
AA Chebyshev filter
BA Butterworth filter
CA passive op-amp filter
DAn active LC filter

34. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
AIt bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
BTo provide fixed DC bias for Q1
CIt is a brute force filter for the output
DTo self-resonate at the hum frequency

35. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic limiting occurs
BSpurious mixer products are generated
CMixer blanking occurs
DA beat frequency is generated

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

SelectAnswer
ASoftware is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
BIncoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
CIncoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
DA switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AA reduction in high frequency response
BUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
CPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
DAn echo caused by a long time delay

38. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough link coupling
BThrough a tapped coil
CThrough a capacitive divider
DThrough a neutralizing capacitor

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A256
B8
C256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
D8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A47
B0.214
C0.47
D2.14

41. - E8C12

What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BKeying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)
CModulation index and output power
DIF bandwidth and Q

42. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

SelectAnswer
ALimits data speed
BThe generation of key clicks
CMore difficult to copy
DThe generation of RF harmonics

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
BThe resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
CThe combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
DThe specific impedance of the antenna

44. - E9B08

What is the far field of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
BThe region where radiated field strengths are constant
CThe region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
DThe region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period

45. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms
B450 ohms
C300 ohms
D72 ohms

46. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AImproved radiation efficiency
BGreater structural strength
CLower Q
DHigher losses

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
CConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
DConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

48. - E9F08

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BFoam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
CFoam dielectric has higher velocity factor
DFoam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits

49. - E9G05

Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ADetermine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
BDetermine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
CDetermine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
DDetermine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
ALow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
BAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
CThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
DAll these choices are correct

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-2