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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

SelectAnswer
AGround reflections and scattering make the field strength vary with location
BThe body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
CAll these choices are correct
DE field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
BIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
CThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
DThe amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

SelectAnswer
AUse of wireless devices in vehicles
BFAA tower height limits
CHomeowners associations
DState and local zoning

4. - E1C09

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.5
B1.0
C2.0
D3.0

5. - E1D06

What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

SelectAnswer
A2 watts
B1 watt
C5 watts
D100 watts

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum passing score of 74%
BMinimum passing score of 70%
CMinimum passing score of 80%
DMinimum passing score of 77%

7. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
BIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
CIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
DThe equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

8. - E2A03

How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is passed through a non-linear filter
BThe signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
CThe signal is passed through a mixer and the difference rather than the sum is transmitted
DThe signal is reduced to I and Q components and the Q component is filtered out

9. - E2B08

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm band?

SelectAnswer
AUsing USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
BTransmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
CUsing converted satellite TV dishes
DTransmitting on channels shared with cable TV

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

SelectAnswer
AFrequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
BCable TV channels 41 through 43
CThe 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
DHF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

SelectAnswer
AMSK144
BJT65
CPACTOR III
DOlivia

12. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

SelectAnswer
AFirst Error Correction
BFinal Error Correction
CForward Error Correction
DFatal Error Correction

13. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThe F2 layer
BThe E layer
CThe F1 layer
DThe D layer

14. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
AOnly 30 meters to 10 meters
BOnly 160 meters to 40 meters
C6 meters to 2 meters
D160 meters to 10 meters

15. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
AD-region skip
BE-region skip
CDownward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
DDue to the Doppler effect

16. - E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BAmount of memory
CSampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
DQ of the circuit

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
BModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
CModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
DModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

18. - E4C02

Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

SelectAnswer
AA front-end filter or pre-selector
BA properly adjusted product detector
CA notch filter
DA narrow IF filter

19. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide a range of AGC time constants
BTo allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
CTo increase rejection of signals outside the desired band
DTo store often-used frequencies

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
ANearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
BReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
CThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
DFM signals can no longer be demodulated

21. - E5A10

How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
BReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
CResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
DReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

SelectAnswer
AMaidenhead grid
BRectangular coordinates
CElliptical coordinates
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A400 watts
B80 watts
C50 watts
D2000 watts

25. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

SelectAnswer
ABipolar
BInsulated gate
CP-type
DN-type

26. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

SelectAnswer
ALess forward voltage drop
BLonger carrier retention time
CMore constant reverse avalanche voltage
DMuch higher reverse voltage breakdown

27. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

SelectAnswer
AA resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
BA resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
CA resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
DA resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit

28. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered iron in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
BFerrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
CFerrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability
DFerrite toroids generally have better temperature stability

29. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

SelectAnswer
ASOT
BPLCC
CDIP
DBall grid array

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

SelectAnswer
AA device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
BA device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
CA device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
DA digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

SelectAnswer
A2
B8
C4
D1

32. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ATune both the input and output for maximum power
BInstall parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
CUse a phase inverter in the output filter
DTune the stage for maximum SWR

33. - E7C12

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AThe Q of Pi-networks can be controlled
BPi-networks provide balanced input and output
CL-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
DPi-networks are more stable

34. - E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a ramp voltage as its output
BThe control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
CThe conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
DIt eliminates the need for a pass transistor

35. - E7E11

Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?

SelectAnswer
AProduct detector
BPhase detector
CPhase comparator
DDiscriminator

36. - E7F04

What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

SelectAnswer
ASignals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
BVarying quartz crystal characteristics emulated in digital form
CMixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
DA frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

37. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease both gain and Q
BRestrict Q but increase gain
CRestrict gain but increase Q
DRestrict both gain and Q

38. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease the bias voltage
BUse NP0 capacitors
CReduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
DMechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A8
B8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
C256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
D256

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
BThe type of modulation used by the transmitter
CThe ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
DThe ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C04

What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

SelectAnswer
AUse of trapezoidal data pulses
BZero-sum character encoding
CReed-Solomon character encoding
DUse of sinusoidal data pulses

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency hopping
BDirect sequence
CPhase compandored spread spectrum
DBinary phase-shift keying

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe input power level
BTransmission line length
CAntenna height
DThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A75 degrees
B50 degrees
C30 degrees
D25 degrees

45. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

SelectAnswer
AOmni-directional
BCardioid
CA figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
DA figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

46. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo lower the losses
BTo lower the Q
CTo cancel capacitive reactance
DTo increase the SWR bandwidth

47. - E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?

SelectAnswer
AHairpin match
BDouble-bazooka match
CGamma match
DAll these choices are correct

48. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
BThe index of shielding for coaxial cable
CThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
DThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe voltage axis
BThe resistance axis
CThe current axis
DThe reactance axis

50. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
BIt provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
CIt modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
DIt allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3