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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
ASignal Amplification Rating
BSynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
CThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
DThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

2. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
AYes, because the DX station initiated the contact
BNo, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
CNo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
DYes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment

3. - E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
A20 kHz
B3 kHz
C15 kHz
D10 kHz

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
BWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
COnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
DNever

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A70 cm and 13 cm
B70 cm only
C70 cm and 33 cm
D33 cm and 13 cm

6. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

SelectAnswer
AThree VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
BPhotocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
CAll these choices are correct
DIssue the examinee the new or upgrade license

7. - E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

SelectAnswer
AOnly Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
BOnly Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny licensed amateur operator
DOnly General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

8. - E2A06

What are Keplerian elements?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
BEncrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
CParameters that define the orbit of a satellite
DPhase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna

9. - E2B12

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

SelectAnswer
AElapsed time
BA two-tone signal
CSpecific tone frequencies
DSpecific tone amplitudes

10. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AA 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
BAn optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
CA wireless router running custom firmware
DA 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

SelectAnswer
ADisconnect
BConnect
CAcknowledgement
DUnnumbered Information

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
AIt depends on the lunar phase
BStations take turns on alternate days
CBy exchanging ACK/NAK packets
DAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals

13. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

SelectAnswer
ADust devil
BThe jet stream
CTemperature inversion
DWind shear

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
AThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
BSignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
CAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
DThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector

15. - E3C15

What might be indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

SelectAnswer
AA temperature inversion has occurred
BLong-path propagation is likely
CIncreased transequatorial propagation is likely
DA solar flare has occurred

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

SelectAnswer
AA false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed
BExcessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal
CCalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
DAll signals will have a DC offset

17. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

SelectAnswer
A125 watts
B100 watts
C25 watts
D75 watts

18. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe minimum discernible signal
BThe meter display sensitivity
CThe multiplex distortion stability
DThe maximum detectable spectrum

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
BCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
CSpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
DOscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
AReturn current
BDifferential-mode current
CCommon-mode current
DReactive current only

21. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
BResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
CReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
DReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

22. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

23. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANear field diagram
BFar field diagram
CPhasor diagram
DVenn diagram

24. - E5D01

What is the result of skin effect?

SelectAnswer
AThermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
BAs frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
CAs frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
DThermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

25. - E6A10

In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

SelectAnswer
A6
B2
C5
D4

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AA sub-harmonic pump signal
BReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
CCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
DForward DC bias current

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
AImmune to damage from static discharge
BLower power consumption
CLower distortion
DDifferential output capability

28. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AToroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
BToroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
CToroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
DToroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

29. - E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AHigher noise figures
BHigher electron mobility
CLower transconductance
DLower junction voltage drop

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

SelectAnswer
AThe conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
BThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
CThe tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light
DThe conversion of light to electrical energy

31. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

SelectAnswer
AA list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
BA table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
CA diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
DA table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

32. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AHigh filament voltage
BHigh power gain
CLow input impedance
DLow bandwidth

33. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

SelectAnswer
ATwo inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
BA capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
CTwo capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
DAn inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output

34. - E7D03

What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AAn SCR
BA varactor diode
CA Zener diode
DA tunnel diode

35. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
BBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
CBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
DBy driving a product detector with a DSB signal

36. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

SelectAnswer
A4 bits
B10 bits
C8 bits
D6 bits

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
BAn echo caused by a long time delay
CA reduction in high frequency response
DPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BUse a GPS signal reference
CUse a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
DUse a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

SelectAnswer
AA method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
BAn error caused by irregular quantization step size
CA small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
DAn abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal

40. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AA digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
BA frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
CA bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
DA digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

41. - E8C06

What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

SelectAnswer
A1.0 kHz
B0.3 kHz
C0.5 kHz
D0.1 Hz

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

SelectAnswer
ALow-pass filters at the transmitter output
BHigh-pass filters at the transmitter output
CIncrease keying waveform rise and fall times
DReduce keying waveform rise and fall times

43. - E9A13

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

SelectAnswer
AApparent power
BEffective radiated power
CPower factor
DHalf-power bandwidth

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A18 dB
B12 dB
C14 dB
D24 dB

45. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

SelectAnswer
AOmni-directional
BA Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
CCardioid
DA Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

46. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

SelectAnswer
AArrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
BArrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
CStack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
DStack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

47. - E9E07

What parameter describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

SelectAnswer
ACharacteristic impedance
BReflection coefficient
CVelocity factor
DDielectric constant

48. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery low impedance
BVery high impedance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
DThe same as the input impedance to the generator

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ASatellite azimuth and elevation bearings
BImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines
CTrigonometric functions
DBeam headings and radiation patterns

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a bidirectional pattern
BIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
CAll these choices are correct
DIt has no clearly defined null

Figure E6-1

Figure E9-1