US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Zinc oxide
B	Beryllium Oxide
C	Mica
D	Uranium Hexafluoride

2. - E1A03

What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	14.349 MHz
B	14.070 MHz
C	14.100 MHz
D	14.149 MHz

3. - E1B11

What does PRB-1 require of regulations affecting amateur radio?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur radio operations must be permitted in any private residence
B	Use of wireless devices in a vehicle is exempt from regulation
C	Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
D	No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
B	Never
C	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
D	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm only
B	33 cm and 13 cm
C	70 cm and 33 cm
D	70 cm and 13 cm

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum passing score of 77%
B	Minimum passing score of 80%
C	Minimum passing score of 70%
D	Minimum passing score of 74%

7. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
B	All these choices are correct
C	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

8. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A log-periodic dipole array
C	A linearly polarized antenna
D	A circularly polarized antenna

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

Select	Answer
A	To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
B	To identify the SSTV mode being used
C	To provide vertical synchronization
D	To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

10. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
B	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
C	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
D	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
B	Storing and forwarding digital messages
C	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
D	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on the lunar phase
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	Stations take turns on alternate days
D	Alternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	CW
C	RTTY
D	SSB

14. - E3B11

At what time of day can sporadic E propagation occur?

Select	Answer
A	Any time
B	Only around sunset
C	Only in hours of darkness
D	Only around sunset and sunrise

15. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Northward
B	Southward
C	Westward
D	Eastward

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

Select	Answer
A	Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
B	Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal
C	All signals will have a DC offset
D	A false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed

17. - E4B02

What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

Select	Answer
A	When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
B	When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
C	The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will indicate the input impedance of the voltmeter
D	When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit

18. - E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency discrimination
B	Desensitization
C	Capture effect
D	Cross-modulation interference

19. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Squelch gain rollback
D	Quieting

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

Select	Answer
A	Differential-mode current
B	Reactive current only
C	Return current
D	Common-mode current

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	1.78 MHz
B	44.72 MHz
C	3.56 MHz
D	22.36 MHz

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	By phase angle and magnitude
B	By real and imaginary parts
C	By Y and G values
D	By X and R values

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in circuit Q
B	Wattless, nonproductive power
C	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

25. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

Select	Answer
A	P-type
B	Bipolar
C	Insulated gate
D	N-type

26. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
B	A negative resistance region
C	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
D	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current

27. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

Select	Answer
A	The feedback loop becomes unstable
B	The comparator changes its output state
C	The comparator enters latch-up
D	The IC input can be damaged

28. - E6D08

What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance
B	Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
C	Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
D	Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability

29. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
B	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
C	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

30. - E6F07

What is a solid-state relay?

Select	Answer
A	A semiconductor passive delay line
B	A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
C	A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
D	A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

31. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic 1 at its output if all inputs are logic 0
B	It only produces logic 0 at its output when all inputs are logic 1
C	It produces logic 0 at its output if all inputs are logic 1
D	It produces logic 1 at its output if any or all inputs are logic 1

32. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Tune both the input and output for maximum power
B	Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
C	Tune the stage for maximum SWR
D	Use a phase inverter in the output filter

33. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

Select	Answer
A	The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
B	The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
C	The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
D	The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

34. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A series regulator
B	A constant current source
C	A shunt regulator
D	A shunt current source

35. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A heterodyne suppressor
B	A pre-emphasis network
C	A heterodyne enhancer
D	A de-emphasis network

36. - E7F12

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
B	All these choices are correct
C	FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
D	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses

37. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	28
B	14
C	7
D	0.07

38. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	Wirewound resistors
B	Toroidal inductors
C	Non-inductive resistors
D	NP0 capacitors

39. - E8A11

Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

Select	Answer
A	Total harmonic distortion
B	Power factor
C	Peak envelope power
D	Reciprocal mixing

40. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High-speed digital modes
B	EME
C	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
D	Extremely low-power contacts

41. - E8C07

What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	5.76 kHz
B	4.8 kHz
C	15.36 kHz
D	9.6 kHz

42. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	More difficult to copy
B	Limits data speed
C	The generation of RF harmonics
D	The generation of key clicks

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
B	Antenna length divided by the number of elements
C	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
D	The angle between the half-power radiation points

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	12 dB
C	24 dB
D	14 dB

45. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
B	An end-fed folded dipole antenna
C	A center-fed 1.25-wavelength antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)
D	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Near the center of the vertical radiator
B	As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C	As close to the transmitter as possible
D	At a voltage node

47. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
B	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
C	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
D	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics

48. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	A capacitive reactance
C	Infinite
D	An inductive reactance

49. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Points with constant resistance
B	SWR
C	Points with constant reactance
D	Frequency

50. - E9H09

What is a Pennant antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
B	A stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
C	A four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant
D	A small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1