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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

SelectAnswer
AReduce received noise
BReduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
CLightning protection
DReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems

2. - E1A03

What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A14.349 MHz
B14.070 MHz
C14.149 MHz
D14.100 MHz

3. - E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
A20 kHz
B15 kHz
C10 kHz
D3 kHz

4. - E1C09

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.5
B1.0
C2.0
D3.0

5. - E1D07

Which HF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the 40, 30, 20, 15, 12, and 10 meter bands
BOnly the 40, 20, 17, 15, and 10 meter bands
CAll HF bands
DOnly the 40, 20, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meter bands

6. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AEach administering VE
BThe FCC
CThe VEC coordinating the session
DThe VE session manager

7. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

SelectAnswer
A440 MHz - 450 MHz
B420 MHz - 430 MHz
C53 MHz - 54 MHz
D222 MHz - 223 MHz

8. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

SelectAnswer
AFrom west to east
BFrom north to south
CFrom south to north
DFrom east to west

9. - E2B08

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm band?

SelectAnswer
AUsing converted satellite TV dishes
BTransmitting on channels shared with cable TV
CTransmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
DUsing USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card

10. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

SelectAnswer
ASend only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
BSend your full call sign once or twice
CSend your full call sign and grid square
DSend the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is,then your call sign three times

11. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
AHellschreiber
BWSPR
CMSK144
DAPRS

12. - E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

SelectAnswer
A300 baud packet
B170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
CPSK31
DAMTOR

13. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
A10 MHz - 14 MHz
B28 MHz - 148 MHz
C1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
D220 MHz - 450 MHz

14. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
AMorning
BLate at night
CAfternoon or early evening
DNoon

15. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the sun will cause disturbed conditions?

SelectAnswer
AWestward
BSouthward
CEastward
DNorthward

16. - E4A03

Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA time-domain reflectometer
BA wattmeter
CA spectrum analyzer
DA logic analyzer

17. - E4B11

Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AReflection coefficient
BInput impedance
CAll these choices are correct
DOutput impedance

18. - E4C12

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?

SelectAnswer
ACPU register width in bits
BRAM speed used for data storage
CAnti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
DAnalog-to-digital converter sample width in bits

19. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo increase rejection of signals outside the desired band
BTo store often-used frequencies
CTo allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
DTo provide a range of AGC time constants

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
ANearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
BFM signals can no longer be demodulated
CReceived audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
DThe audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

21. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 40 picofarads?

SelectAnswer
A3.56 MHz
B1.78 MHz
C44.72 MHz
D22.36 MHz

22. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AIt becomes the reciprocal
BIt is unchanged
CThe sign is reversed
DIt is shifted by 90 degrees

23. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

SelectAnswer
A25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
B50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
C50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
D25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A2000 watts
B400 watts
C50 watts
D80 watts

25. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

SelectAnswer
AN-type
BInsulated gate
CP-type
DBipolar

26. - E6B10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

SelectAnswer
A6
B7
C1
D5

27. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

SelectAnswer
AThe feedback loop becomes unstable
BThe comparator enters latch-up
CThe IC input can be damaged
DThe comparator changes its output state

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AInter-turn capacitance
BInductive kickback
CThe skin effect
DNon-linear core hysteresis

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
ANearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
BControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
CThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
DPlate current that is controlled by a control grid

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ASelenium
BCadmium Sulfide
CCopper oxide
DSilicon

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

SelectAnswer
AA bipolar amplifier
BAn AND gate
CA flip-flop
DAn OR gate

32. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
AFixed bias
BSelf bias
CEmitter bypass
DOutput load resistor

33. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

SelectAnswer
AGradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
BExtremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
CExtremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
DGradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

34. - E7D02

What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
BThe controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
CIt gives a ramp voltage at its output
DIt is generally less efficient than a linear regulator

35. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AA heterodyne suppressor
BA pre-emphasis network
CA de-emphasis network
DA heterodyne enhancer

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

SelectAnswer
ARemoving unnecessary significant digits
BAttenuating the signal
CConverting data to binary code decimal form
DReducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

37. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E73 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A0.21
B24
C94
D47

38. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

SelectAnswer
AColpitts and Hartley
BNegative feedback and balanced feedback
CArmstrong and deForest
DPierce and Zener

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
A25 to 1
B2.5 to 1
C100 to 1
D1 to 1

40. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

SelectAnswer
AHigh-speed digital modes
BOFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
CExtremely low-power contacts
DEME

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

SelectAnswer
A26 Hz
B13 Hz
C52 Hz
D104 Hz

42. - E8D09

What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

SelectAnswer
A+15 dB
B-20 dB
C+10 dB
D-30 dB

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
BThe resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
CThe specific impedance of the antenna
DThe value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna

44. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
AAzimuth
BElevation
CPolarization
DRadiation resistance

45. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
BA dipole constructed from zip cord
CAn omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
DAn end-fed dipole antenna

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAt a voltage node
BAs low as possible on the vertical radiator
CAs close to the transmitter as possible
DNear the center of the vertical radiator

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe stub match
BThe gamma match
CThe delta match
DThe epsilon match

48. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery high impedance
BVery low impedance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
DThe same as the generator output impedance

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AReassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
BReassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
CReassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
DReassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

50. - E9H03

What is Receiving Directivity Factor (RDF)?

SelectAnswer
AForward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
BRelative directivity compared to a dipole
CForward gain compared to average gain over the entire hemisphere
DRelative directivity compared to isotropic

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-2