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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
ASynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
BThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
CThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
DSignal Amplification Rating

2. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANo, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
BYes, because the DX station initiated the contact
CYes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
DNo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

3. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

SelectAnswer
A3 miles
B1 mile
C30 miles
D10 miles

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
BWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
COnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
DNever

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

SelectAnswer
AOnly those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
BOnly those of Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
DAny amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

6. - E1E12

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

SelectAnswer
AMaintain the application form with the VEC's records
BSend the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
CReturn the application document to the examinee
DDestroy the application form

7. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications that have religious content
BCommunications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
CCommunications in a language other than English
DCommunications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

8. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

SelectAnswer
AThe uplink and downlink frequency ranges
BThe polarization of uplink and downlink signals
CPower limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
DThe location of the ground control station

9. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ASpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
BNarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
CA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
DAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted

10. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

SelectAnswer
ASend your full call sign once or twice
BSend your full call sign and grid square
CSend only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
DSend the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is,then your call sign three times

11. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

SelectAnswer
AWSPR
BHellschreiber
CAPRS
DMSK144

12. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

SelectAnswer
AFinal Error Correction
BForward Error Correction
CFatal Error Correction
DFirst Error Correction

13. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

SelectAnswer
AThe D layer
BThe F1 layer
CThe F2 layer
DThe E layer

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A20 meters
B10 meters
C80 meters
D6 meters

15. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
ABy approximately 15 percent of the distance
BBy approximately four times the distance
CBy approximately 50 percent of the distance
DBy approximately twice the distance

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
BConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
CLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
DLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

17. - E4B11

Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BInput impedance
CReflection coefficient
DOutput impedance

18. - E4C11

Why can an attenuator be used to reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

SelectAnswer
ASignals are attenuated separately from the noise
BAtmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
CThe attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
DThe attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference

19. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

SelectAnswer
ASignals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
BThe receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
CA pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
DA pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
ACommon-mode current
BReturn current
CDifferential-mode current
DReactive current only

21. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

SelectAnswer
A157.8 Hz
B47.3 kHz
C23.67 kHz
D315.6 Hz

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

23. - E5C11

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 7
BPoint 1
CPoint 3
DPoint 8

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A0.866
B1.73
C0.5
D0.577

25. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

SelectAnswer
ABipolar
BInsulated gate
CP-type
DN-type

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
ACapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
BReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
CA sub-harmonic pump signal
DForward DC bias current

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
ALower power consumption
BImmune to damage from static discharge
CDifferential output capability
DLower distortion

28. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
ATeflon and Delrin
BCobalt and aluminum
CFerrite and brass
DPolystyrene and polyethylene

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
AThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
BNearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
CControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
DPlate current that is controlled by a control grid

30. - E6F06

Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

SelectAnswer
AA heavy metal
BA crystalline semiconductor
CA liquid semiconductor
DAn ordinary metal

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

SelectAnswer
AA flip-flop
BAn AND gate
CAn OR gate
DA bipolar amplifier

32. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

SelectAnswer
AWhere the load line intersects the voltage axis
BApproximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
CAt a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
DAt a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

33. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

SelectAnswer
AGradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
BGradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
CExtremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
DExtremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

SelectAnswer
AEqualize the voltage across each capacitor
BAll these choices are correct
CDischarge the capacitors when voltage is removed
DProvide a minimum load on the supply

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
BTo produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
CTo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
DTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

36. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

SelectAnswer
ASample clock phase noise
BSample rate
CProcessor latency
DSample width in bits

37. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

SelectAnswer
ARestrict both gain and Q
BIncrease both gain and Q
CRestrict gain but increase Q
DRestrict Q but increase gain

38. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a capacitive divider
BThrough link coupling
CThrough a tapped coil
DThrough a neutralizing capacitor

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

SelectAnswer
AAn error caused by irregular quantization step size
BA method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
CA small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
DAn abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.214
B2.14
C0.47
D47

41. - E8C10

How may data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AIncreasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
BUsing a more efficient digital code
CIt is impossible
DUsing forward error correction

42. - E8D08

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

SelectAnswer
AIntermodulation Distortion (IMD)
BBaud rate
CSignal-to-noise ratio
DRepeat Request Rate (RRR)

43. - E9A13

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

SelectAnswer
AEffective radiated power
BHalf-power bandwidth
CPower factor
DApparent power

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A30 degrees
B25 degrees
C75 degrees
D50 degrees

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
BA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
CA type of ground-plane antenna
DA dipole configured to provide forward gain

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe front-to-back ratio decreases
BThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
CThe SWR is reduced
DThe front-to-back ratio increases

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
CInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
DConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A13.3 meters
B8.5 meters
C7.0 meters
D10.6 meters

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ATrigonometric functions
BImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines
CBeam headings and radiation patterns
DSatellite azimuth and elevation bearings

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has no clearly defined null
BIt has a bidirectional pattern
CAll these choices are correct
DIt is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands

Figure E5-1

Figure E9-1