Questions in US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra 2002
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| Name | Question | Study |
|---|---|---|
| E1A03 | What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra class control operators? | Start |
| E1A04 | What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra Class control operators? | Start |
| E1A05 | What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra Class control operators? | Start |
| E1A06 | Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? | Start |
| E1A07 | Within the 20-meter band, what is the amount of spectrum authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? | Start |
| E1A08 | Which frequency bands contain two segments authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license, CEPT radio-amateur Class 1 license or Class 1 IARP? | Start |
| E1A09 | What must an amateur station licensee do if a spurious emission from the station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station? | Start |
| E1A12 | What is the maximum mean power permitted to any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power greater than 25 watts on an amateur service VHF band? | Start |
| E1A13 | What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on an amateur service VHF band? | Start |
| E1A14 | If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the rules violation? | Start |
| E1A15 | If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take? | Start |
| E1A16 | For each ITU Region, how is each frequency band allocated internationally to the amateur service designated? | Start |
| E1A17 | Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license? | Start |
| E1A18 | What are the sharing requirements for an amateur station transmitting in the 30- meter band? | Start |
| E1A19 | If an amateur station is installed on board a ship and is separate from the ship radio installation, what condition must be met before the station may transmit? | Start |
| E1A20 | What is the definition of the term telemetry? | Start |
| E1A21 | What is the definition of the term telecommand? | Start |
| E1A22 | When may an amateur station transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages? | Start |
| E1B01 | Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure? | Start |
| E1B02 | Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful interference? | Start |
| E1B03 | What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? | Start |
| E1B04 | If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted? | Start |
| E1B05 | When may an amateur operator accept compensation for serving as the control operator of an amateur station used in a classroom? | Start |
| E1B06 | Who may accept compensation for serving as a control operator in a classroom at an educational institution? | Start |
| E1B07 | If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height restrictions apply? | Start |
| E1B08 | What limits must local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension restrictions for an amateur station antenna structure? | Start |
| E1B09 | If you are installing an amateur radio station antenna at a site within 5 miles from a public use airport, what additional rules apply? | Start |
| E1B10 | What is meant by a remotely controlled station? | Start |
| E1B11 | Which of the following amateur stations may not be operated under automatic control? | Start |
| E1B12 | What is meant by automatic control of a station? | Start |
| E1B13 | How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? | Start |
| E1B14 | What is a control link? | Start |
| E1B15 | What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? | Start |
| E1C01 | What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? | Start |
| E1C02 | Who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? | Start |
| E1C03 | What are the frequency privileges authorized for alien reciprocal operation? | Start |
| E1C04 | What indicator must a Canadian amateur station include with the assigned call sign in the station identification announcement when operating in the US? | Start |
| E1C05 | When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur service license be authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? | Start |
| E1C06 | Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur operator from being authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? | Start |
| E1C07 | What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian amateur service license may reciprocal operate in the US? | Start |
| E1C08 | What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have in the US, if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a multilateral or bilateral reciprocal operating agreement? | Start |
| E1C09 | From which locations may a licensed alien amateur operator be the control operator of an amateur station? | Start |
| E1C10 | Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? | Start |
| E1C11 | Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other's countries? | Start |
| E1C12 | What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? | Start |
| E1D01 | What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)? | Start |
| E1D02 | What is the purpose of RACES? | Start |
| E1D03 | With what organization must an amateur station be registered before participating in RACES? | Start |
| E1D04 | Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? | Start |
| E1D05 | What frequencies are authorized normally to an amateur station participating in RACES? | Start |
| E1D06 | What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force? | Start |
| E1D07 | What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation? | Start |
| E1D08 | What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies available for RACES operation? | Start |
| E1D09 | Who may be the control operator of a RACES station? | Start |
| E1D10 | With which stations may amateur stations participating in RACES communicate? | Start |
| E1D11 | What communications are permissible in RACES? | Start |
| E1E01 | What is the amateur-satellite service? | Start |
| E1E02 | What is a space station in the amateur-satellite service? | Start |
| E1E03 | What is a telecommand station in the amateur-satellite service? | Start |
| E1E04 | What is an earth station in the amateur-satellite service? | Start |
| E1E06 | Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as a space station? | Start |
| E1E07 | What special provision must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? | Start |
| E1E09 | Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? | Start |
| E1E10 | Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? | Start |
| E1E11 | Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? | Start |
| E1E12 | Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? | Start |
| E1E13 | What unique privilege is afforded a telecommand station? | Start |
| E1E14 | What is the term for space-to-Earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station? | Start |
| E1E15 | Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? | Start |
| E1F01 | Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? | Start |
| E1F02 | Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur license examinations? | Start |
| E1F03 | Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken? | Start |
| E1F07 | What is the purpose of an Element 4 examination? | Start |
| E1F08 | What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator? | Start |
| E1F09 | What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner? | Start |
| E1F10 | What is a VE Team? | Start |
| E1F11 | Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited? | Start |
| E1F12 | What is the VE accreditation process? | Start |
| E1F13 | Where must the VE team be stationed while administering an examination? | Start |
| E1F14 | Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? | Start |
| E1F15 | What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? | Start |
| E1F16 | What special procedures must a VE team follow for an examinee with a physical disability? | Start |
| E1F17 | To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? | Start |
| E1F18 | What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? | Start |
| E1F19 | What must the VE team do with your test papers when you have finished this examination? | Start |
| E1F21 | What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? | Start |
| E1F22 | What must the VE team do if the examinee does not score a passing grade on the examination? | Start |
| E1F23 | What are the consequences of failing to appear for readministration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? | Start |
| E1F24 | What are the types of out-of-pocket expenses for which the FCC rules authorize a VE and VEC to accept reimbursement? | Start |
| E1F25 | How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination? | Start |
| E1G01 | What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service? | Start |
| E1G03 | Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? | Start |
| E1G04 | Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes Line A? | Start |
| E1G05 | Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they are located north of Line A? | Start |
| E1G06 | What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? | Start |
| E1G07 | What type of automatically controlled amateur station must not be established in the National Radio Quiet Zone before the licensee gives written notification to the National Radio Astronomy Observatory? | Start |
| E1G08 | When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party? | Start |
| E1G09 | When may an amateur station send a message to a business? | Start |
| E1G10 | Which of the following types of amateur operator-to-amateur operator communication are prohibited? | Start |
| E1G11 | What is the term for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation? | Start |
| E1G12 | FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions? | Start |
| E1G13 | Under any circumstance, what is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting emission type SS communications? | Start |
| E1G14 | What of the following is a use for an auxiliary station? | Start |
| E2A01 | What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? | Start |
| E2A02 | What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? | Start |
| E2A03 | What is the period of an amateur satellite? | Start |
| E2A04 | What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/H in amateur satellite operations? | Start |
| E2A05 | What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode U/V in amateur satellite operations? | Start |
| E2A06 | What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/U in amateur satellite operations? | Start |
| E2A07 | What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L/U in amateur satellite operations? | Start |
| E2A08 | What is a linear transponder? | Start |
| E2A09 | What is the name of the effect that causes the downlink frequency of a satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit? | Start |
| E2A10 | Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect? | Start |
| E2A11 | What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? | Start |
| E2A12 | How may the location of a satellite at a given time be predicted? | Start |
| E2B01 | How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system? | Start |
| E2B02 | How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? | Start |
| E2B03 | How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system? | Start |
| E2B04 | What is blanking in a video signal? | Start |
| E2B05 | What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television transmission? | Start |
| E2B06 | What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black in amateur fast scan television? | Start |
| E2B07 | What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking in amateur fast scan television? | Start |
| E2B08 | Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? | Start |
| E2B09 | What is facsimile? | Start |
| E2B10 | What is the modern standard scan rate for a fax image transmitted by an amateur station? | Start |
| E2B11 | What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a fax picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm? | Start |
| E2B12 | What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions? | Start |
| E2B13 | How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? | Start |
| E2B14 | What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture? | Start |
| E2B15 | What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture? | Start |
| E2B16 | What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white in an amateur fast- scan television transmission? | Start |
| E2B17 | Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television? | Start |
| E2B18 | What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? | Start |
| E2B19 | Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still images by radio? | Start |
| E2B20 | What special restrictions are imposed on fax transmissions? | Start |
| E2C01 | When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you generally follow? | Start |
| E2C02 | What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating contests? | Start |
| E2C03 | Which of the following is typical of operations during an international amateur DX contest? | Start |
| E2C04 | If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your reply? | Start |
| E2C05 | What does a Maidenhead gridsquare refer to? | Start |
| E2C06 | During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the highest level of contest activity? | Start |
| E2C07 | If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 kHz and a station replies that you are in the window, what does this mean? | Start |
| E2C08 | Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference? | Start |
| E2C09 | How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work? | Start |
| E2C10 | While participating in an HF contest, how should you attempt to contact a station calling CQ and stating that he is listening on another specific frequency? | Start |
| E2C11 | When operating SSB in a VHF contest, how should you attempt to contact a station calling CQ while a pileup of other stations are also trying to contact the same station? | Start |
| E2C12 | In North America during low sunspot activity, signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations? | Start |
| E2D01 | What does CMD: mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a packet station? | Start |
| E2D02 | What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board? | Start |
| E2D03 | In comparing HF and 2-meter packet Operations, which of the following is NOT true? | Start |
| E2D04 | What is the purpose of a digital store and forward on an Amateur satellite? | Start |
| E2D05 | Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? | Start |
| E2D06 | What is the common 2-meter APRS frequency? | Start |
| E2D07 | Which of the following digital protocols does APRS use? | Start |
| E2D08 | Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? | Start |
| E2D09 | Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? | Start |
| E2D10 | How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity, such as a walk-a-thon? | Start |
| E2D11 | Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network? | Start |
| E2E01 | What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz? | Start |
| E2E02 | What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to AMTOR operation? | Start |
| E2E03 | How is Forward Error Correction implemented? | Start |
| E2E04 | If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what would this indicate about the observed signal? | Start |
| E2E05 | What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin has been previously received? | Start |
| E2E06 | What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? | Start |
| E2E07 | What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? | Start |
| E2E08 | Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? | Start |
| E2E11 | What is the Baudot code? | Start |
| E2E12 | Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? | Start |
| E3A01 | What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce? | Start |
| E3A02 | What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? | Start |
| E3A03 | When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? | Start |
| E3A04 | What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? | Start |
| E3A05 | What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact? | Start |
| E3A06 | What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact? | Start |
| E3A07 | What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2-meter band? | Start |
| E3A08 | What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70-cm band? | Start |
| E3A09 | When a meteor strikes the earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? | Start |
| E3A10 | Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? | Start |
| E3A11 | What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact? | Start |
| E3B01 | What is transequatorial propagation? | Start |
| E3B02 | What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? | Start |
| E3B03 | What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? | Start |
| E3B04 | What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? | Start |
| E3B05 | On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal enhancement? | Start |
| E3B06 | What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a modest antenna of relatively high gain? | Start |
| E3B07 | What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the station? | Start |
| E3B08 | What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? | Start |
| E3B09 | At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? | Start |
| E3B10 | What is the cause of gray-line propagation? | Start |
| E3B11 | What communications are possible during gray-line propagation? | Start |
| E3C01 | What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications? | Start |
| E3C02 | What is the cause of auroral activity? | Start |
| E3C03 | Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? | Start |
| E3C04 | Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation? | Start |
| E3C05 | What causes selective fading? | Start |
| E3C06 | How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? | Start |
| E3C07 | How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? | Start |
| E3C08 | For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground? | Start |
| E3C09 | What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? | Start |
| E3C10 | What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles? | Start |
| E3C11 | For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with the downward slope of the ground (moving away from the antenna)? | Start |
| E3C12 | In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? | Start |
| E3C13 | As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change? | Start |
| E3C14 | What typical polarization does ground-wave propagation have? | Start |
| E3C15 | Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? | Start |
| E4A01 | How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope? | Start |
| E4A02 | What parameter does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? | Start |
| E4A03 | What parameter does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? | Start |
| E4A04 | Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? | Start |
| E4A05 | Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? | Start |
| E4A06 | Which of the following is NOT something that could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? | Start |
| E4A07 | What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a VHF transmitter? | Start |
| E4A08 | What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the status of a logic circuit? | Start |
| E4A09 | Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital voltage states? | Start |
| E4A10 | What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit? | Start |
| E4A11 | Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit? | Start |
| E4A12 | Which of the following procedures should you follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output? | Start |
| E4B01 | What is a frequency standard? | Start |
| E4B02 | What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency counter? | Start |
| E4B03 | How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? | Start |
| E4B04 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B05 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B06 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B07 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B08 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B09 | If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? | Start |
| E4B10 | If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure will be displayed on the screen? | Start |
| E4B11 | What is a dip-meter? | Start |
| E4B12 | What does a dip-meter do? | Start |
| E4B13 | How does a dip-meter function? | Start |
| E4B14 | What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? | Start |
| E4B15 | For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with the LC circuit being checked? | Start |
| E4B16 | What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an oscilloscope? | Start |
| E4B17 | What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a tuned circuit being checked? | Start |
| E4B18 | What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a D'Arsonval-type meter? | Start |
| E4B19 | How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? | Start |
| E4C01 | What is the effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver? | Start |
| E4C02 | What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? | Start |
| E4C03 | Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization? | Start |
| E4C04 | Which of the following is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced? | Start |
| E4C05 | What is the FM capture effect? | Start |
| E4C06 | What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal? | Start |
| E4C07 | What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver? | Start |
| E4C08 | What is the blocking dynamic range for a receiver that has an 8-dB noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz when the blocking level (1-dB compression point) is -20 dBm? | Start |
| E4C09 | What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? | Start |
| E4C10 | What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? | Start |
| E4C11 | If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring? | Start |
| E4C12 | How does intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters usually occur? | Start |
| E4C13 | How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? | Start |
| E4C14 | If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal? | Start |
| E4C15 | If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called? | Start |
| E4C16 | What is cross-modulation interference? | Start |
| E4C17 | What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? | Start |
| E4C18 | What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? | Start |
| E4C19 | What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? | Start |
| E4C20 | Selectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver by using what means? | Start |
| E4C21 | What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur RTTY receiver? | Start |
| E4C22 | What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband phone receiver? | Start |
| E4C23 | What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? | Start |
| E4C24 | How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? | Start |
| E4C25 | What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF section of an FM phone receiver? | Start |
| E4C27 | In a receiver, if the second-order intermodulation products have a power of-70 dBm when using two test tones at -30 dBm, what is the second-order intercept point? | Start |
| E4D01 | What is one of the most significant problems associated with reception in HF transceivers? | Start |
| E4D02 | What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile transceiver? | Start |
| E4D03 | Where should ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a mobile transceiver? | Start |
| E4D04 | How can alternator whine be minimized? | Start |
| E4D05 | How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? | Start |
| E4D06 | How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed? | Start |
| E4D07 | What is a major cause of atmospheric static? | Start |
| E4D08 | How can it be determined if line-noise interference is being generated within your home? | Start |
| E4D09 | What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter? | Start |
| E4D10 | Which of the following types of equipment would be least useful in locating power line noise? | Start |
| E4E01 | What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted between circuit board pads? | Start |
| E4E02 | What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? | Start |
| E4E03 | What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna? | Start |
| E4E04 | What is the triangulation method of direction finding? | Start |
| E4E05 | Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding? | Start |
| E4E06 | What is a sense antenna? | Start |
| E4E07 | What is a loop antenna? | Start |
| E4E08 | How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased? | Start |
| E4E09 | Why is an antenna with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction-finding system? | Start |
| E4E10 | What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding? | Start |
| E4E11 | What is the amateur station activity known as fox hunting? | Start |
| E5A01 | What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? | Start |
| E5A02 | What is resonance in an electrical circuit? | Start |
| E5A03 | What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical circuit? | Start |
| E5A04 | When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its capacitive reactance, what is this condition called? | Start |
| E5A05 | What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? | Start |
| E5A06 | What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? | Start |
| E5A07 | What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? | Start |
| E5A08 | What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance? | Start |
| E5A09 | What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? | Start |
| E5A10 | What is the relationship between the current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? | Start |
| E5A11 | What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? | Start |
| E5A12 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? | Start |
| E5A13 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? | Start |
| E5A14 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? | Start |
| E5A15 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? | Start |
| E5A16 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? | Start |
| E5A17 | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? | Start |
| E5A18 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A19 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A20 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A21 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A22 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A23 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A24 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads? | Start |
| E5A25 | What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? | Start |
| E5B01 | What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? | Start |
| E5B02 | What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? | Start |
| E5B03 | What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? | Start |
| E5B04 | The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage after two time constants? | Start |
| E5B05 | The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? | Start |
| E5B06 | What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? | Start |
| E5B07 | What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? | Start |
| E5B08 | What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? | Start |
| E5B09 | How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? | Start |
| E5B10 | How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? | Start |
| E5B11 | How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? | Start |
| E5C01 | What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along transmission lines? | Start |
| E5C02 | What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? | Start |
| E5C03 | What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart? | Start |
| E5C04 | What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart? | Start |
| E5C05 | What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1? | Start |
| E5C06 | On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart? | Start |
| E5C07 | On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight line shown? | Start |
| E5C08 | What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart? | Start |
| E5C09 | What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems? | Start |
| E5C10 | In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? | Start |
| E5C11 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100- picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500 kHz? | Start |
| E5C13 | What are the curved lines on a Smith chart? | Start |
| E5C14 | How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? | Start |
| E5D01 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms? | Start |
| E5D02 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? | Start |
| E5D03 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 25 ohms? | Start |
| E5D04 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? | Start |
| E5D05 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? | Start |
| E5D06 | What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor? | Start |
| E5D07 | What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? | Start |
| E5D08 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? | Start |
| E5D09 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms? | Start |
| E5D10 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? | Start |
| E5D11 | What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms? | Start |
| E5E01 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E02 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all connected in series? | Start |
| E5E03 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? | Start |
| E5E04 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E05 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E06 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E07 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E08 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? | Start |
| E5E09 | When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent? | Start |
| E5E10 | When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent? | Start |
| E5E11 | What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates? | Start |
| E5E12 | If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit? | Start |
| E5E13 | Why would you plot the impedance of a circuit using the polar coordinate system? | Start |
| E5E14 | What coordinate system can be used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance? | Start |
| E5E15 | What coordinate system can be used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance? | Start |
| E5E16 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance? | Start |
| E5E17 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees? | Start |
| E5E18 | In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees? | Start |
| E5E19 | In rectangular coordinates, what is the admittance of a circuit that has an impedance of 240 ohms at 36.9 degrees? | Start |
| E5E20 | In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm? | Start |
| E5E21 | Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz? | Start |
| E5E22 | Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz? | Start |
| E5E23 | Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz? | Start |
| E5F01 | What is the result of skin effect? | Start |
| E5F02 | What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface of a conductor? | Start |
| E5F03 | Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor? | Start |
| E5F04 | Why does most of an RF current flow near the surface of a conductor? | Start |
| E5F05 | Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? | Start |
| E5F06 | What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? | Start |
| E5F07 | What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? | Start |
| E5F08 | What is a magnetic field? | Start |
| E5F09 | In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? | Start |
| E5F10 | What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor? | Start |
| E5F11 | What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? | Start |
| E5G01 | What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms? | Start |
| E5G02 | What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms? | Start |
| E5G03 | What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm? | Start |
| E5G04 | What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms? | Start |
| E5G05 | What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms? | Start |
| E5G06 | Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit? | Start |
| E5G07 | What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors? | Start |
| E5G08 | In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to reactive power? | Start |
| E5G09 | In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? | Start |
| E5G10 | What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? | Start |
| E5G11 | How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes? | Start |
| E5G12 | Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? | Start |
| E5G13 | What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms? | Start |
| E5G14 | What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and R is 10 kilohms? | Start |
| E5G15 | What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 microhenrys and R is 100 ohms? | Start |
| E5G16 | What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 3 microhenrys and R is 2.2 kilohms? | Start |
| E5H01 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H02 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H03 | What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H04 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H05 | What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H06 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H07 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H08 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H09 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H10 | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? | Start |
| E5H11 | What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses? | Start |
| E5H12 | What is reactive power? | Start |
| E5H13 | What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? | Start |
| E5H14 | What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? | Start |
| E5H15 | How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes? | Start |
| E5H16 | How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 watts? | Start |
| E5I01 | What is photoconductivity? | Start |
| E5I02 | What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? | Start |
| E5I03 | What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? | Start |
| E5I04 | What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when light shines on it? | Start |
| E5I05 | What is an optocoupler? | Start |
| E5I06 | What is an optoisolator? | Start |
| E5I07 | What is an optical shaft encoder? | Start |
| E5I08 | What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change? | Start |
| E5I09 | Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when visible light shines on it? | Start |
| E5I10 | Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when infrared light shines on it? | Start |
| E5I11 | Which material is affected the most by photoconductivity? | Start |
| E5I12 | What characteristic of optoisolators is often used in power supplies? | Start |
| E5I13 | What characteristic of optoisolators makes them suitable for use with a triac to form the solid-state equivalent of a mechanical relay for a 120 V AC household circuit? | Start |
| E6A01 | In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon? | Start |
| E6A02 | What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals? | Start |
| E6A03 | What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material? | Start |
| E6A04 | What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? | Start |
| E6A05 | What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor? | Start |
| E6A06 | In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? | Start |
| E6A07 | What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? | Start |
| E6A08 | What is a depletion-mode FET? | Start |
| E6A09 | In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? | Start |
| E6A10 | In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? | Start |
| E6A11 | Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes? | Start |
| E6A12 | What do the initials CMOS stand for? | Start |
| E6A13 | How does DC input impedance on the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor? | Start |
| E6A14 | What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics? | Start |
| E6A15 | What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals? | Start |
| E6A16 | What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material? | Start |
| E6A17 | What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor? | Start |
| E6B01 | What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? | Start |
| E6B02 | What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? | Start |
| E6B03 | What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? | Start |
| E6B04 | What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? | Start |
| E6B05 | In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? | Start |
| E6B06 | What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? | Start |
| E6B07 | What limits the maximum forward current rating in a junction diode? | Start |
| E6B08 | Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? | Start |
| E6B09 | What is a common use for point contact diodes? | Start |
| E6B10 | In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? | Start |
| E6B11 | What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E6-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? | Start |
| E6B12 | How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? | Start |
| E6B13 | What essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-source amplifier? | Start |
| E6B14 | What will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E6-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 0.23 volts is applied to the input? | Start |
| E6B15 | What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E6-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? | Start |
| E6B16 | What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E6-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? | Start |
| E6B18 | Which of the following circuits is used to recover audio from an FM voice signal? | Start |
| E6B19 | What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit? | Start |
| E6B20 | How are junction diodes rated? | Start |
| E6B21 | What is one common use for PIN diodes? | Start |
| E6B22 | What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? | Start |
| E6B23 | What is an operational amplifier? | Start |
| E6B24 | What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage? | Start |
| E6B25 | What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? | Start |
| E6B26 | What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? | Start |
| E6B27 | What is a phase-locked loop circuit? | Start |
| E6B28 | What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop? | Start |
| E6C01 | What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? | Start |
| E6C02 | What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open? | Start |
| E6C03 | What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power supply? | Start |
| E6C04 | What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power-supply? | Start |
| E6C05 | What is NOT a major advantage of CMOS over other devices? | Start |
| E6C06 | Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? | Start |
| E6C07 | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? | Start |
| E6C08 | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? | Start |
| E6C09 | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? | Start |
| E6C10 | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? | Start |
| E6C11 | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)? | Start |
| E6D01 | How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon? | Start |
| E6D02 | What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence? | Start |
| E6D03 | If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to 35,000 volts? | Start |
| E6D04 | Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X- rays? | Start |
| E6D05 | Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? | Start |
| E6D06 | What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera? | Start |
| E6D07 | What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)? | Start |
| E6D08 | What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10-turn winding? | Start |
| E6D09 | By careful selection of core material, over what frequency range can toroidal cores produce useful inductors? | Start |
| E6D10 | What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor? | Start |
| E6D11 | What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers? | Start |
| E6D12 | What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? | Start |
| E6D13 | How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns? | Start |
| E6D14 | How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns? | Start |
| E6D15 | What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be displayed on the screen? | Start |
| E6D16 | Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? | Start |
| E6D17 | What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices? | Start |
| E6D18 | What is one important reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor? | Start |
| E6E01 | For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter? | Start |
| E6E02 | For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter? | Start |
| E6E03 | What is a crystal lattice filter? | Start |
| E6E04 | What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal ladder filters? | Start |
| E6E05 | Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter? | Start |
| E6E06 | What is the piezoelectric effect? | Start |
| E6E07 | What is the characteristic impedance of circuits in which MMICs are designed to work? | Start |
| E6E08 | What is the typical noise figure of a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifier? | Start |
| E6E09 | What type of amplifier device consists of a small pill sized package with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads? | Start |
| E6E10 | What typical construction technique do amateurs use when building an amplifier for the microwave bands containing a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)? | Start |
| E6E11 | How is the operating bias voltage supplied to a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) that uses four leads? | Start |
| E6E12 | How is the DC power from a voltage source fed to a monolithic microwave integrated circuits (MMIC)? | Start |
| E6E13 | What supply voltage do monolithic microwave integrated circuits (MMIC) amplifiers typically require? | Start |
| E6E14 | What is the most common package for inexpensive monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifiers? | Start |
| E7A01 | What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? | Start |
| E7A02 | How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit? | Start |
| E7A03 | The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? | Start |
| E7A04 | How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? | Start |
| E7A05 | What is the characteristic function of an astable multivibrator? | Start |
| E7A06 | What is the characteristic function of a monostable multivibrator? | Start |
| E7A07 | What logical operation does an AND gate perform? | Start |
| E7A08 | What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? | Start |
| E7A09 | What logical operation does an OR gate perform? | Start |
| E7A10 | What logical operation does a NOR gate perform? | Start |
| E7A11 | What is a truth table? | Start |
| E7A12 | In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? | Start |
| E7A13 | In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? | Start |
| E7B01 | For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate? | Start |
| E7B02 | Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? | Start |
| E7B03 | Where on the load line should a bipolar-transistor, common-emitter Class A power amplifier be operated for best efficiency and stability? | Start |
| E7B04 | How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier? | Start |
| E7B05 | How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifiers? | Start |
| E7B06 | What can occur when a nonlinear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? | Start |
| E7B07 | How can a vacuum-tube power amplifier be neutralized? | Start |
| E7B08 | What is the procedure for tuning a vacuum-tube power amplifier having an output pi-network? | Start |
| E7B09 | In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? | Start |
| E7B10 | In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of C3? | Start |
| E7B11 | In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3? | Start |
| E7B12 | What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1? | Start |
| E7B13 | In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of C1? | Start |
| E7B14 | In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R? | Start |
| E7B15 | In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2? | Start |
| E7B16 | What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B17 | What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B18 | What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B19 | What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B20 | What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B21 | What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B22 | What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7B23 | What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? | Start |
| E7C01 | How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter pi-network arranged between the network's input and output? | Start |
| E7C02 | What is an L-network? | Start |
| E7C03 | A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has which of the following properties? | Start |
| E7C04 | What advantage does a pi-L-network have over a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? | Start |
| E7C05 | How does a network transform one impedance to another? | Start |
| E7C06 | Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? | Start |
| E7C07 | What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter? | Start |
| E7C08 | What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission? | Start |
| E7C09 | What characteristic do typical SSB receiver IF filters lack that is important to digital communications? | Start |
| E7C10 | What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? | Start |
| E7C11 | What kind of digital signal processing filter might be used in generating an SSB signal? | Start |
| E7C12 | Which type of filter would be the best to use in a 2-meter repeater duplexer? | Start |
| E7C13 | What is a pi-network? | Start |
| E7C14 | What is a pi-L-network? | Start |
| E7C15 | Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? | Start |
| E7D01 | What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio equipment? | Start |
| E7D02 | What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? | Start |
| E7D03 | How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? | Start |
| E7D04 | How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? | Start |
| E7D05 | How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? | Start |
| E7D06 | Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in a VFO? | Start |
| E7D07 | Why is very stable reference oscillator normally used as part of a phase-locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer? | Start |
| E7D08 | What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator? | Start |
| E7D09 | What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator? | Start |
| E7D10 | What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? | Start |
| E7D11 | What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient use of the primary power source? | Start |
| E7D12 | What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications requiring a constant load on the unregulated voltage source? | Start |
| E7D13 | Which of the following Zener diodes voltages will result in the best temperature stability for a voltage reference? | Start |
| E7D14 | What are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator? | Start |
| E7D15 | What type of voltage regulator limits the voltage drop across its junction when a specified current passes through it in the reverse-breakdown direction? | Start |
| E7E01 | How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced? | Start |
| E7E02 | How does a reactance modulator work? | Start |
| E7E03 | How does a phase modulator work? | Start |
| E7E04 | How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? | Start |
| E7E05 | What audio shaping network is added at a transmitter to proportionally attenuate the lower audio frequencies, giving an even spread to the energy in the audio band? | Start |
| E7E06 | What audio shaping network is added at a receiver to restore proportionally attenuated lower audio frequencies? | Start |
| E7E07 | What is the mixing process? | Start |
| E7E08 | What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? | Start |
| E7E09 | What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? | Start |
| E7E10 | What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source? | Start |
| E7E11 | What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass antialias filter? | Start |
| E7E12 | What are the main blocks of a direct digital frequency synthesizer? | Start |
| E7E13 | What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer? | Start |
| E7E14 | What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? | Start |
| E7E15 | What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers? | Start |
| E7E16 | What is the process of detection? | Start |
| E7E17 | What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? | Start |
| E7E18 | What does a product detector do? | Start |
| E7E19 | How are FM-phone signals detected? | Start |
| E7E20 | What is a frequency discriminator? | Start |
| E7E21 | How can an FM-phone signal be produced? | Start |
| E7F01 | What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? | Start |
| E7F02 | How many states does a decade counter digital IC have? | Start |
| E7F03 | What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? | Start |
| E7F04 | What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz? | Start |
| E7F05 | If a 1-MHz oscillator is used with a divide-by-ten circuit to make a marker generator, what will the output be? | Start |
| E7F06 | What is a crystal-controlled marker generator? | Start |
| E7F07 | What type of circuit does NOT make a good marker generator? | Start |
| E7F08 | What is the purpose of a marker generator? | Start |
| E7F09 | What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on? | Start |
| E7F10 | How does a frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal? | Start |
| E7F11 | What is the purpose of a frequency counter? | Start |
| E7G01 | What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter? | Start |
| E7G02 | What causes ringing in a filter? | Start |
| E7G03 | What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter? | Start |
| E7G04 | What type of capacitors should be used in a high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuit? | Start |
| E7G05 | How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit? | Start |
| E7G06 | What parameter must be selected when selecting the resistor and capacitor values for an RC active filter using an op-amp? | Start |
| E7G07 | The design of a preselector involves a trade-off between bandwidth and what other factor? | Start |
| E7G08 | When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and Q, what steps are typically followed when selecting the external components? | Start |
| E7G09 | When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and Q, why are the external capacitance values usually chosen first, then the external resistance values calculated? | Start |
| E7G10 | What are the principal uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur circuitry? | Start |
| E7G11 | Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur receiver? | Start |
| E8A01 | Starting at a positive peak, how many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle? | Start |
| E8A02 | What is a wave called that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and remains an equal time at each level? | Start |
| E8A03 | What sine waves added to a fundamental frequency make up a square wave? | Start |
| E8A04 | What type of wave is made up of a sine wave of a fundamental frequency and all its odd harmonics? | Start |
| E8A05 | What is a sawtooth wave? | Start |
| E8A06 | What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? | Start |
| E8A07 | What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a fundamental frequency and all harmonics? | Start |
| E8A08 | What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? | Start |
| E8A09 | What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? | Start |
| E8A10 | What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? | Start |
| E8A11 | What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? | Start |
| E8A12 | What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? | Start |
| E8A13 | What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? | Start |
| E8A14 | For many types of voices, what is the approximate ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? | Start |
| E8A15 | In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? | Start |
| E8A16 | What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts? | Start |
| E8A17 | What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? | Start |
| E8A18 | What is the period of a wave? | Start |
| E8B01 | What is emission A3C? | Start |
| E8B02 | What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? | Start |
| E8B03 | What does a facsimile transmission produce? | Start |
| E8B04 | What is emission F3F? | Start |
| E8B05 | What type of emission is produced when an SSB transmitter is modulated by a slow-scan television signal? | Start |
| E8B06 | If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is J, representing a single- sideband, suppressed-carrier signal, what information about the emission is described? | Start |
| E8B07 | If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 1, representing a single channel containing quantized, or digital information, what information about the emission is described? | Start |
| E8B08 | If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is D, representing data transmission, telemetry or telecommand, what information about the emission is described? | Start |
| E8B10 | How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)? | Start |
| E8B11 | In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? | Start |
| E8B12 | What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? | Start |
| E8B13 | What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? | Start |
| E8B14 | In a pulse width-modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power much greater than its average power? | Start |
| E8B15 | What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? | Start |
| E8B17 | Which of the following describe the three most-used symbols of an ITU emission designator? | Start |
| E8B18 | If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is G, representing a phase- modulated signal, what information about the emission is described? | Start |
| E8B19 | In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? | Start |
| E8B20 | In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? | Start |
| E8B21 | How are the pulses of a pulse-modulated signal usually transmitted? | Start |
| E8B22 | In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of the frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency? | Start |
| E8B23 | What is meant by deviation ratio? | Start |
| E8B24 | What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? | Start |
| E8C01 | What digital code consists of elements having unequal length? | Start |
| E8C02 | What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? | Start |
| E8C03 | What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications? | Start |
| E8C04 | What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter Communications at times other than during meteor showers? | Start |
| E8C05 | What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use? | Start |
| E8C06 | What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use? | Start |
| E8C07 | What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code emission A1A transmission? | Start |
| E8C08 | What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission? | Start |
| E8C09 | What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hz shift, 1200-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission? | Start |
| E8C10 | What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission? | Start |
| E8C11 | What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence? | Start |
| E8C12 | What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? | Start |
| E8C13 | What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? | Start |
| E8C14 | What controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum transmission? | Start |
| E8C15 | What makes spread-spectrum communications resistant to interference? | Start |
| E8C16 | What reduces interference from spread-spectrum transmitters to conventional communications in the same band? | Start |
| E8D01 | What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope? | Start |
| E8D02 | What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? | Start |
| E8D03 | What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform? | Start |
| E8D04 | What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? | Start |
| E8D05 | What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30 volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope? | Start |
| E8D06 | If an RMS reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage? | Start |
| E8D07 | What is the advantage of using a peak-reading voltmeter to monitor the output of a single-sideband transmitter? | Start |
| E8D08 | What is an electromagnetic wave? | Start |
| E8D09 | Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space? | Start |
| E8D10 | What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves? | Start |
| E8D11 | What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Earth? | Start |
| E8D12 | What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth? | Start |
| E8D13 | What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected? | Start |
| E8D14 | At approximately what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? | Start |
| E8D15 | To ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power, what kind of meter would you use to monitor the output signal of a properly adjusted single- sideband transmitter? | Start |
| E8D16 | What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts? | Start |
| E8D17 | If an RMS reading voltmeter reads 34 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak voltage? | Start |
| E9A01 | Which of the following describes an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A02 | When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A03 | How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A04 | Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction? | Start |
| E9A05 | Which of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A06 | Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna? | Start |
| E9A07 | What factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? | Start |
| E9A08 | What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? | Start |
| E9A09 | What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? | Start |
| E9A10 | What is a folded dipole antenna? | Start |
| E9A11 | What is meant by antenna gain? | Start |
| E9A12 | What is meant by antenna bandwidth? | Start |
| E9A13 | How can the approximate beamwidth of a beam antenna be determined? | Start |
| E9A14 | How is antenna efficiency calculated? | Start |
| E9A15 | How can the efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave dipole antenna? | Start |
| E9A16 | What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna measurements? | Start |
| E9A17 | How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A18 | How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A19 | Which of the following describes the directivity of an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9A20 | What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna? | Start |
| E9B01 | What determines the free-space polarization of an antenna? | Start |
| E9B02 | In the free-space H-Field radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3- dB beamwidth? | Start |
| E9B03 | In the free-space H-Field pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to- back ratio? | Start |
| E9B04 | In the free-space H-field pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to- side ratio? | Start |
| E9B05 | What information is needed to accurately evaluate the gain of an antenna? | Start |
| E9B06 | Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate a gain antenna across the whole frequency band for which it was designed? | Start |
| E9B07 | What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain? | Start |
| E9B08 | If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs? | Start |
| E9B09 | What type of computer program is commonly used for modeling antennas? | Start |
| E9B10 | What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? | Start |
| E9C01 | What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? | Start |
| E9C02 | What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? | Start |
| E9C03 | What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase? | Start |
| E9C04 | What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? | Start |
| E9C05 | What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? | Start |
| E9C06 | What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase? | Start |
| E9C07 | Which of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic antenna? | Start |
| E9C08 | What are the advantages of a terminated rhombic antenna? | Start |
| E9C09 | What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands? | Start |
| E9C10 | What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? | Start |
| E9C11 | What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2? | Start |
| E9C12 | In the H field antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2, what is the elevation angle of the peak response? | Start |
| E9C13 | In the H field antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2, what is the front-to-back ratio? | Start |
| E9C14 | In the H field antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2, how many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction? | Start |
| E9C15 | How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground? | Start |
| E9C16 | If only a modest on-ground radial system can be used with an eighth-wavelength- high, inductively loaded vertical antenna, what would be the best compromise to minimize near-field losses? | Start |
| E9C17 | What is one characteristic of a Beverage antenna? | Start |
| E9C18 | How would the electric field be oriented for a Yagi with three elements mounted parallel to the ground? | Start |
| E9C19 | What strongly affects the shape of the far-field, low-angle elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna? | Start |
| E9C20 | Why are elevated-radial counterpoises popular with vertically polarized antennas? | Start |
| E9C21 | What is a terminated rhombic antenna? | Start |
| E9D01 | What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur satellite station in earth operation? | Start |
| E9D02 | What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station in earth operation? | Start |
| E9D03 | What is the approximate beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9D04 | How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? | Start |
| E9D05 | How is circular polarization produced using linearly polarized antennas? | Start |
| E9D06 | How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased? | Start |
| E9D07 | Why does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control? | Start |
| E9D08 | For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? | Start |
| E9D09 | Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? | Start |
| E9D10 | What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? | Start |
| E9D11 | How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system? | Start |
| E9D12 | What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi? | Start |
| E9D13 | What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? | Start |
| E9D14 | What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? | Start |
| E9D15 | What is the approximate input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna? | Start |
| E9D16 | Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna? | Start |
| E9D17 | What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? | Start |
| E9D18 | What happens at the base feed-point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? | Start |
| E9D19 | What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9D20 | What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9D21 | What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? | Start |
| E9E01 | What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center? | Start |
| E9E02 | What system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center? | Start |
| E9E03 | What impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna? | Start |
| E9E04 | What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a Yagi beam antenna for the 20-meter band? | Start |
| E9E05 | What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a Yagi beam antenna for the 10-meter band? | Start |
| E9E06 | What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? | Start |
| E9E07 | What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? | Start |
| E9E08 | Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? | Start |
| E9E09 | What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with polyethylene dielectric? | Start |
| E9E10 | What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.) | Start |
| E9E11 | What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.95.) | Start |
| E9E12 | What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line? | Start |
| E9E13 | Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched transmission line? | Start |
| E9E14 | What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)? | Start |
| E9E15 | What is the term for the ratio of the actual velocity at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum? | Start |
| E9E16 | What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.) | Start |
| E9E17 | What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? | Start |
| E9E18 | What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? | Start |
| E9E19 | What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? | Start |
| E9E20 | What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? | Start |
| E9E21 | What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? | Start |
| E9E22 | What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? | Start |
